As well as writing down your answer see if you can write down WHY the statement is true or false AND what else you can remember about the topic.

For example: Statement: The Structuralism school of Psychology was influenced by Darwin. Answer: False. Darwin influenced the Functionalists. Wundt was a Structuralist while James was a Functionalist. Structuralism focused on basic elements or building blocks of experiences.

 Questions

1. Most behaviour has a single cause.
2. Wundt was an important contributor to the Structuralism school of Psychology.
3. Aristotle believed that behaviour was mostly the result of nurture.
4. Cognitive Psychology focuses on mental processes.
5. The Functionalism school of Psychology was founded by Freud.
6. The lower level of explanation focuses on interpersonal processes.
7. Hindsight bias refers to people’s tendency to have positive memories of their childhood.
8. Over time, psychology changed from being a philosophical to a scientific discipline.
9. Introspection involves asking people to report on their own mental processes as they happen.
10. Forensic psychology focuses on issues relevant to the criminal justice system.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. true
5. false
6. false
7. false
8. true
9. true
10. true

If you are going to write more than a couple of paragraphs, think about the structure of your answer.

1. How do structuralism and functionalism differ?
2. Why shouldn’t we rely on intuition to answer questions about human behaviour?
3. What are some of the differences between collectivist and individualist cultures?
4. What are the key elements of psychodynamic psychology?

1. Evolutionary psychology has its roots in ________.
2. In terms of the nature-nurture debate, Aristotle argued for ________ while Plato argued for ________.
3. Free will is typically contrasted with ________.
4. ________ ________ are the ways of thinking, feeling or behaving that are shared by group members and perceived by them as appropriate.
5. Western cultures are primarily oriented toward ________ while East Asian culture is primarily oriented toward ________.
6. Freud, Jung, Adler and Erikson contributed to the ________ school of psychology.
7. ________ used introspection to try to identify the basic elements of psychological experience.
8. Biological processes underlie the ________ level of explanation while interpersonal processes underlie the ________ level.
9. Descartes believed that the mind is fundamentally different from the mechanical body, in other words he believed in the principle of ________.
10. ________ psychologists conduct research on the cognitive, emotional and social changes that occur across the lifespan.

Answers

1. functionalism
2. nurture, nature
3. determinism
4. social norms
5. individualism, collectivism  ….. independence, interdependence is also an acceptable answer
6. psychodynamic
7. structuralism
8. lower, middle
9. dualism
10. developmental

1. The word “psychology’ comes from: a. Latin b. Spanish c. Greek d. Italian
2. Psychology is defined as the scientific study of: a. people and things b. emotions and beliefs c. perception and religion d. mind and behaviour
3. The scientific approach is more useful at answering questions about ______ than questions about ______. a. facts, values b. ideas, emotions c. values, facts d. emotions, facts
4. According to the text, the lower level of explanation corresponds to ______ processes. a. social b. cultural c. biological d. interpersonal
5. A psychologist exploring the impact of a new drug on activity in the brain is working on the ______ level of explanation. a. lower b. middle c. upper d. all of the above
6. A psychologist studying what makes people laugh in different countries around the world is working on the ______ level of explanation. a. lower b. middle c. higher d. none of the above
7. Different people react differently to the same situation. This is referred to as: a. multiple determinants b. nativism c. the Simpson effect d. individual differences
8.  ______ is to nature as ______ is to nurture. a. environment, genes b. conscious, unconscious c. inaccuracy, accuracy d. biology, experience
9. The term “tabula rasa” highlights the importance of ______ in shaping behaviour. a. genes b. experience c. nature d. predestination
10. The Greek philosopher ______ believed that knowledge is acquired through experience and learning. a. Archimedes b. Rousseau c. Plato d. Aristotle
11.  ______ is to nature as ______ is to nurture. a. Plato, Aristotle b. Aristotle, Plato c. Pliny, Archimedes d. Stavros, Pliny
12.  ______ is the belief that the mind is fundamentally different from the body. a. mindism b. dualism c. centralism d. specialism
13. The school of psychology whose goal was to identify the basic elements of experience was called: a. experientialism b. dualism c. functionalism d. structuralism
14. Which of the following was most closely associated with the structuralist school of psychology? a. Titchener b. James c. Descartes d. Watson
15. Darwin’s theory of ______ argued that physiological characteristics evolve because they are useful to the organism. a. extreme usefulness b. natural endowment c. natural selection d. natural wellbeing
16. ______ was to structuralism as ______ was to functionalism. a. Wundt, Titchener b. Wundt, James c. James, Titchener d. Milner, Thompson
17. Freud championed ______ psychology. a. psychodynamic b. cultural c. conscious d. biodynamic
18. Which school of psychology believes that it is impossible to objectively study the mind? a. functionalism b. behaviorism c. humanism d. socialism
19. Receiving an electric shock would be an example of a ______ whereas being frightened would be an example of a ______. a. stimulus, response b. punishment, reward c. reaction, emotion d. reinforcement, stimulus
20. Dr Pula wants to explore differences in child-rearing practices between British and Chinese parents. She is most likely a: a. cognitive psychologist b. physiological psychologist c. cognitive-ergonomic psychologist d. social-cultural psychologist
21. Nature is to ________ as nurture is to ________. a. environment/genes b. conscious/unconscious c. genes/environment d. unconscious/conscious
22. Freud emphasized the role of ________ in shaping people’s personality. a. free will b. unconscious desires c. hormones d. group influence
23. Evolutionary psychology has its roots in: a. behaviourism b. collectivism c. functionalism d. structuralism
24. Most human behaviour: a. can be easily explained b. has multiple causes c. stems from unconscious desires d. depends on social influence
25. A forensic psychologist would be most likely to study: a. the accuracy of eyewitness memory b. the impact of advertising on shopping behaviour c. the effect of hormones on decision making d. gender differences in learning styles
26. The behaviourists rejected introspection because: a. it was too slow b. it invaded people’s privacy c. it yielded too much data d. it was too subjective
27. Another term for reinforcement is: a. stimulus b. reward c. response d. condition
28. East Asian cultures tend to be more oriented toward ________ while Western cultures tend to be more oriented toward ________. a. individualism/collectivism b. collectivism/individualism c. cultural norms/social norms d. social norms/cultural norms
29. Watson and Skinner both contributed to which school of psychology? a. functionalism b. cognitive c. social-cultural d. behaviourism
30. Which field of psychology would be most likely to study the influence of over-crowding on conformity? a. personality b. cognitive c. clinical d. social

Answers 

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. a
6. c
7. d
8. d
9. b
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. c
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. b
23. c
24. b
25. a
26. d
27. b
28. b
29. d
30. d

Questions

1. Negative reinforcement involves removing something to decrease a response.
2. Jung believed in a collective unconscious.
3. According to Freud, the manifest content of a dream is superficial and meaningless.
4. The humanistic perspective emerged before the psychodynamic perspective.
5. Remembering how to ride a bicycle would be an example of procedural memory.
6. In Seligman’s ABCDE model, the A stands for anxiety.
7. Pavlov was influential in behaviourist psychology.
8. Positive reinforcement involves adding something to increase a response.
9. The occipital lobe is also known as the auditory cortex.
10. When referring to sleep processes, REM stands for rapid eye movement.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. true

If you are going to write more than a couple of paragraphs, think about the structure of your answer.

1. What are the main parts of the peripheral nervous system?
2. Describe Freud’s theory of human consciousness.
3. How are reinforcement and punishment used in operant conditioning?
4. What are the key principles of humanistic psychology?

1. NCC seeks to link activity within the brain to subjective human experiences in the physical world. NCC stands for ________ ________ ________.
2. Jung distinguished between four functions: thinking, feeling, ________ and ________.
3. The ________ nervous system controls the fight-or-flight response.
4. Pavlov worked on a type of learning called ________ ________.
5. ________ involves applying game incentives such as prompts, competition, badges and rewards to everyday activities.
6. ________ psychology emerged in the late 1950s as a reaction against behaviourism and the psychodynamic view.
7. ________ psychology is the study of mental processes such as attention, memory, problem solving and thinking.
8. The ________ lobe is also known as the auditory cortex.
9. Driving to work along the same route everyday would make use of ________ memory.
10. Watson, Skinner, Pavlov and Thorndike were all ________

Answers

1. neural correlates of consciousness
2. sensing, intuiting
3. sympathetic
4. classical conditioning
5. gamification
6. humanistic
7. cognitive
8. temporal
9. procedural
10. behaviourists

1. The belief that complex behaviours can be understood as the sum of several simpler one's is called: a. reductionism b. functionalism c. introspection d. animism
2. Wundt’s primary method of research was: a. experimentation b. autoethnography c. introspection d. lesioning
3. Jung stated that humans possess both a ________ unconscious and a ________ unconscious: a. shadow/manifest b. personal/collective c. introvert/extravert d. phenomenal/latent
4. Remembering that the capital of Canada is Ottawa requires: a. sensory memory b. semantic memory c. episodic memory d. procedural memory
5. Which of the following psychologists was NOT a behaviourist? a. Watson b. Thorndike c. Skinner d. Maslow
6. Positive reinforcement involves ________ something to increase a response whereas negative reinforcement involves ________ something. a. repeating/increasing b. adding/removing c. removing/adding d. increasing/repeating
7. Two kinds of learning studied by behaviourists are: a. classical conditioning and operant conditioning b. manifest learning and latent learning c. conscious learning and unconscious learning d. operant conditioning and instrumental conditioning
8. Which of the following is NOT a theory of dreaming? a. expectation fulfillment b. activation-synthesis c. threat-simulation d. elucidatory consciousness
9. The brain has four lobes: occipital, frontal ________ and ________. a. sympathetic, parasympathetic b. autonomic, somatic c. temporal, parietal d. visual, auditory
10. A psychologist who practices Gestalt Therapy would most likely be a(n): a. humanist b. behaviourist c. evolutionist d. cognitivist
11. A psychologist primarily interested in mental processes such as memory and perception would most likely be a(n): a. humanist b. behaviourist c. evolutionist d. cognitivist
12. Which of the following topics would be of least interest to a biological psychologist? a. hunger b. thirst c. free will d. sleep
13. William James worked during the: a. late 20th century b. late 19th century c. middle ages d. the 1700s
14. Freud argued that dreams have both ________ content and ________ content. a. Freudian, Jungian b. conditioned, unconditioned c. latent, manifest d. somatic, autonomic
15. In Pavlov’s work dogs salivated naturally in response to being given meat powder. In this situation, salivation is the ________ while the meat powder is the ________. a. UCR, UCS b. UCS, UCR c. CS, CR d. CR, CS
16. Which of the following was a humanistic psychologist? a. Freud b. Watson c. Wernicke d. Rogers
17. What are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system? a. somatic, autonomic b. reflexive, responsive c. sympathetic, parasympathetic d. frontal, occipital
18. MBTI stands for: a. Manifold Barometric Temperature Indicator b. Multiple Behavioural Theories Instrument c. Myers Briggs Type Indicator d. Maslow Bosun Trend Indicator
19. Which lobe of the brain is also known as the auditory cortex? a. frontal b. temporal c. occipital d. parietal
20. Which of the following is NOT associated with Freud? a. id b. ego c. shadow d. super-ego
21. In Seligman’s ABCDE model of learned optimism, B stands for: a. belief b. behaviour c. brain d. blessing
22.  ________ needs were at the bottom of Maslow’s pyramid/hierarchy. a. safety b. self actualization c. esteem d. physiological
23. The idea that human behaviour may be the product of natural selection is central to: a. humanistic psychology b. evolutionary psychology c. cognitive psychology d. behavioural psychology
24. The movement known as radical behaviourism is most closely associated with: a. Watson b. Thorndike c. Pavlov d. Skinner
25. Intrinsic motivation refers to: a. enjoying a task for its own sake b. being motivated by money and/or other rewards c. enjoying a task because it meets physical needs d. motivation that can only be experienced indoors
26. Remembering what you ate for supper yesterday requires: a. sensory memory b. episodic memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory
27. According to Freud the ________ content of a dream relates to the person’s unconscious wishes. a. shadow b. lateral c. spreading d. latent
28. Humanistic psychology emerged during which decade? a. 1930s b. 1950s c. 1970s d. 1990s
29. In Pavlov’s work, when dogs were trained to salivate to the sound of a bell that sound was the: a. UCS b. UCR c. CS d. CR
30. Another term for thinking about thinking is: a. metacognition b. perception c. mediation d. self-regulation

Answers

1. a
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. d
9. c
10. a
11. d
12. c
13. b
14. c
15. a
16. d
17. c
18. c
19. b
20. c
21. a
22. d
23. b
24. d
25. a
26. b
27. d
28. b
29. c
30. a

• Psychology Today: For an overview of the current state of psychology   (http://www.apa.org/action/science/)
• The Power of Framing: It's not what you say, it's how you say it is a look at how the way in which information is presented can influence people’s decisions (https://www.theguardian.com/science/head-quarters/2017/jul/20/the-power-of-framing-its-not-what-you-say-its-how-you-say-it)
• For examples of the limitations of intuition read:
  • When Intution Misfires  (http://www.apa.org/monitor/mar05/misfires.aspx)
  • Hindsight Bias in Psychology (https://www.verywell.com/what-is-a-hindsight-bias-2795236)
  • Fake news and neurobabble: how do we critically assess what we read? (https://www.theguardian.com/science/head-quarters/2017/feb/20/fake-news-and-neurobabble-how-do-we-critically-assess-what-we-read)
  • The 10 Most Controversial Studies Ever Published: As you begin your exploration of the science of psychology here’s an introduction to some of the most infamous studies: (https://digest.bps.org.uk/2014/09/19/the-10-most-controversial-psychology-studies-ever-published/)

References

Cherry, K. (2018).  Hindsight Bias in Psychology. Retrieved from https://www.verywell.com/what-is-a-hindsight-bias-2795236

Etchells, P. (2017, February 20). Fake news and neurobabble: how do we critically assess what we read. The Guardian. Retrieved from https://www.theguardian.com/science/head-quarters/2017/feb/20/fake-news-and-neurobabble-how-do-we-critically-assess-what-we-read

Gallego-Romero, I. (2017, April 11).  The battle between nature and nuture. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/chzDR3feSHY

Greer, M. (2005). When intuition misfires. Retrieved from http://www.apa.org/monitor/mar05/misfires.aspx

Jarrett, C. (2014, September 19). The 10 most controversial psychology studies ever published. Retrieved from https://digest.bps.org.uk/2014/09/19/the-10-most-controversial-psychology-studies-ever-published/

Rathie, S. (2017, July, 20).  The power of framing: It's not what you say, but how you say it. The Guardian. Retrieved from https://www.theguardian.com/science/head-quarters/2017/jul/20/the-power-of-framing-its-not-what-you-say-its-how-you-say-it

Street, W. R. (2018). A daily history of events in the history of psychology. Retrieved from https://www.cwu.edu/ ~warren/calendar/datepick.html

References

Christoyork. (2010, October 1). Early reaction time research in psychology. [Video]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/8UhQoYBPfpQ

Hall, A. (2015, March 11). Which famous psychologist are you most like. Retrieved from http://www.playbuzz.com/ashleighh11/which-famous-psychologist-are-you-most-like

Neuro Transmissions. (2017, February 19). The birth of psychology. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p3m-Ge-bTPM

Serendip Studio. (2018). Serendip studio: A digital ecosystem, fueled by serendipity. Retrieved from http://serendip.brynmawr.edu/Mind/Table.html

TestMyBrain. (2018). TestMyBrain. Retrieved from https://www.testmybrain.org/

Questions:

1. Correlational research allows us to assess the causal impact of one variable on another.
2. Lack of external validity limits the extent to which the findings of a study can be generalized.
3. The standard deviation is a measure of dispersion.
4. A parsimonious theory is one that can be shown to be incorrect.
5. The median is a measure of dispersion.
6. Case studies, surveys and naturalistic observation are all descriptive research designs.
7. In an experiment, the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
8. Multiple regression is used to analyse the results of a case study.
9. In an experiment, a confounding variable would be a threat to internal validity.
10. In an experiment looking at the effect of eating candy on irritability, irritability would be the independent variable.

Answers :

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false

1. What issues should be addressed when obtaining informed consent?
2. Why can’t we draw causal conclusions from correlational data?  Explain with an example.
3. Describe the four characteristics of a good theory.
4. What are the key ingredients in an experiment?

1. When above-average values for one variable tend to be associated with below-average values for the other variable, the two variables are ________ ________ .
2. ________ statements are based on systematic collection and analysis of data.
3. The goal of ________ research is to provide a snapshot of the current state of affairs.
4. In an experiment, the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measures the ________ variable.
5. The most common method of creating equivalence among the experimental conditions in an experiment is to use ________ ________.
6. Case studies, surveys and naturalistic observation are types of ________ research.
7. The standard deviation measures ________.
8. The mode is the value that occurs ________ frequently in a distribution.
9. An experiment has ________ validity if we trust the conclusions that have been drawn about the causal relationship between the IV and DV.
10. The process of repeating previous research is known as ________.

Answers

1. negatively correlated
2. empirical
3. descriptive
4. independent, dependent
5. random assignment
6. descriptive
7. dispersion  ….. variability would also be an acceptable answer
8. most
9. internal
10. replication

1. Statements based on the systematic collection of data are: a. empirical b. dialectic c. empathic d. false
2. The goal of correlational research is to: a. assess the causal impact of one variable on another b. create a snapshot of what’s happening c. assess relationships between variables d. all of the above
3. A study of the feeding behaviour of a group of wild monkeys in India would be an example of: a. a survey b. naturalistic observation c. a correlation d. an experiment
4. If income and happiness are positively correlated then a person with a low income would be predicted to be: a. not depressed at all b. less depressed than a person with a high income c. more depressed than a person with a high income d. cannot make a prediction from correlational data
5. Descriptive statistics aim to: a. explain b. confuse c. complicate d. summarize
6. In a ________ experiment neither the researcher nor the participants know which condition participants are in. a. blind b. double-blind c. random d. confounded
7. A researcher is interested in the impact of anxiety on performance. In order to manipulate anxiety, they have some subjects eat plain chips while others eat barbecue flavoured chips. The most obvious problem with this experiment is a lack of : a. statistical validity b. empirical validity c. internal validity d. construct validity
8. A strength of correlational designs is that they: a. can demonstrate causation b. do not require ethics board approval c. can be used with variables which cannot be manipulated by a researcher d. are more intrusive than experimental designs
9. A researcher uses an experimental design to study the effect of music on memory. In this experiment, the Independent Variable is: a. music b. memory c. both music and memory d. neither music nor memory
10. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good theory? a. it is parsimonious b. it is falsifiable c. it is common sense d. it is general
11. Empirical statements are based on: a. belief b. data c. intuition d. common sense
12. Informed consent is typically obtained: a. during an experiment b. before an experiment c. after an experiment d. it is not typical to obtain informed consent
13. Creating equivalence among research participants is vital for: a. experimental research b. correlational research c. descriptive research d. equivalence is never vital
14. A researcher is interested in whether the results of her experiment (conducted in Canada) would be the same if the experiment were conducted in China. This researcher is concerned with: a. internal validity b. external validity c. statistical validity d. none of the above
15. Standard deviation is a measure of: a. range b. central tendency c. inference d. dispersion
16. Generalization is a key issue in: a. internal validity b. external validity c. a double-blind experiment d. a single-blind experiment
17. In an experiment examining the effect of mood on intelligence participants are randomly assigned to watch either a funny movie or a sad movie before they complete an IQ test. The funny movie is shown in a classroom, while the sad movie is shown in the student lounge. The most obvious problem with this experiment is: a. lack of statistical validity b. the IV is confounded c. the use of random assignment d. none of the above
18. In an experiment the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measure the ________ variable. a. independent, dependent b. dependent, independent c. causal, spurious d. spurious, causal
19. The more exercise a person takes the fewer medical problems they report. This is an example of: a. a curvilinear relationship b. statistical independence c. a positive correlation d. a negative correlation
20. In a normal distribution most scores are located: a. at the high end of the distribution b. at the low end of the distribution c. in the centre of the distribution d. at the extremes of the distribution
21. Data from a correlational study is usually shown as a: a. scatterplot b. pie chart c. bar graph d. b or c
22. A researcher plans to assess intelligence by counting the number of times participants can hop on one leg in 60 seconds. An obvious problem with this is: a. lack of statistical validity b. number of hops is too subjective c. lack of construct validity d. lack of significance
23. A double-blind study is used to minimize the impact of: a. experimenter bias b. expectancy effects c. both a and b d. neither a nor b
24. Correlation coefficients range from: a. r = -1 to r = +1 b. r = 0 to r = +1 c. r = -1 to r = 0 d. r = +.5 to r = +1
25. In an experiment randomly assigned, participants drank wine or water. All participants then completed an anxiety questionnaire. In this experiment the IV was: a. the results of the memory test b. the participants c. the random assignment d. what the participants drank
26. Research shows that the older a person is, the larger their vocabulary. This is an example of a : a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. causal correlation d. partial correlation
27. Three commonly used measures of central tendency are: a. range, standard deviation, median, b. median, mode, dispersion c. mode, median, standard deviation d. median, mode, mean
28. Dr. Maki questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an example of a(n) a. experiment b. survey c. case study d. manipulation
29. In an experiment looking at the effect of heat on performance, participants were randomly assigned to spend 20 minutes in a hot room painted blue or to spend 20 minutes in a cold room painted yellow. In this experiment the IV is confounded by: a. lack of random sampling b. the colour of the room c. performance on the task d. there is no confound
30. A researcher asks 250 students (from a school with 1000 pupils) to complete a survey about the cafereria. The 250 students are a: a. population b. case study c. sample d. variable

Answers

1. a
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. b
13. a
14. b
15. d
16. b
17. b
18. a
19. d
20. c
21. a
22. c
23. c
24. a
25. d
26. a
27. d
28. b
29. b
30. c

References

Cherry, K. (May 16, 2017) Very Well Mind: Psychology experiment ideas for assignments. Retrieved from https://www.verywell.com/psychology-experiment-ideas-2795669

Fadera, A. (April 21, 2017.) How much are readers misled by headlines that imply correlational findings are casual? The British Psychological Society: Research Digest. Retrieved from https://digest.bps.org.uk/2017/04/21/how-much-are-readers-misled-by-headlines-that-imply-correlational-findings-are-causal/

Hanlon, M. (December 3, 2013). The truth about sex, lies and surveys. The Telegraph. Retrieved from http://www.telegraph.co.uk/women/sex/10488703/The-truth-about-sex-lies-and-surveys.html

Hulchanski, D., Murdie, R., Walks, A. & Bourne, L. (October 4, 2013). Canada's voluntary census is worthless. Here's why. The Globe and Mail. Retrieved from http://www.theglobeandmail.com/commentary/canadas-voluntary-census-is-worthless-heres-why/article14674558/

Lichtenwaldt, L. (January 9, 2014). Research methods – practice with independent and dependent variables. [Video file]. Retrieve from https://youtu.be/0sqmziVN6Os

Sample, I. (August 27, 2015.) Study delivers bleak verdict on validity of psychology experiment results. The Guardian. Retrieved from http://www.theguardian.com/science/2015/aug/27/study-delivers-bleak-verdict-on-validity-of-psychology-experiment-results

Smeets, I. (November 5, 2012.). The danger of mixing up causality and correlation: Ionica Smeets at TEDxDelft. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/8B271L3NtAw

Wood, T. (September 8, 2016). News 1130: A case study in distracted driving. Retrieved from http://www.news1130.com/2016/09/08/feature-a-case-study-in-distracted-driving/

Questions

1. A person with damage to their cerebellum would have difficulty understanding speech.
2. The corpus callosum connects the two hemispheres of the brain.
3. An FMRI involves lesioning the brain.
4. Glands in the endocrine system secrete hormones.
5. The peripheral nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.
6. The visual cortex is located in the temporal lobes.
7. The pineal gland is sometimes referred to as the master gland.
8. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system.
9. The dendrites of a neuron pass messages away from the cell body.
10. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. false
7. false
8. true
9. false
10. true

If you are going to write more than a couple of paragraphs, think about the structure of your answer.

1. Choose two neurotransmitters and describe their impact.
2. Identify the four lobes of the cortex and describe the main function(s) of each of them.
3. What is the endocrine system? Choose two of its glands and explain how they impact human behaviour.
4. What are the three key structures of the brain stem and what impact do they have on human behaviour?

1. The brain and spinal cord make up the ________ ________ ________.
2. TMS involves applying ________ ________ to the brain of a living person to temporarily and safely deactivate a small region.
3. The ________ ________ is a layer of fatty tissue surrounding the axon of a neuron that acts as insulation and allows faster transmission of the action potential.
4. The ________ ________ is a system of glands that secrete hormones.
5. The area of the brain stem that controls heart rate and breathing is called the ________.
6. The four lobes of the cortex are: ________, ________, ________ and ________.
7. The pituitary gland is controlled by the ________.
8. The two divisions of the PNS are the ________ nervous system and the ________ nervous system.
9. The ________ is primarily responsible for regulating our perceptions of, and reactions to, aggression and fear.
10. The brain’s ability to change its structure and function in response to experience or damage is called ________.

Answers

1. central nervous system
2. magnetic pulses
3. myelin sheath
4. endocrine system
5. medulla
6. frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal
7. hypothalamus
8. autonomic, somatic
9. amygdala
10. neuroplasticity

1. What part of a neuron is responsible for receiving information? a. axon b. terminal fibre c. dendrite d. myelin sheath
2. Electrical stimulation of the reticular formation would most likely cause an animal to: a. sneeze b. become blind c. wake up if it had been sleeping d. stop breathing
3. In evolutionary terms, which is the oldest part of the brain? a. the limbic system b. the cortex c. the right hemisphere d. the brain stem
4. The change in electrical charge that occurs in a neuron when a nerve impulse is transmitted is known as the: a. action potential b. synaptic change c. refractory period d. ionic charge
5. Schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease are both linked to changes in which neurotransmitter? a. serotonin b. glutamate c. dopamine d. acetylcholine
6. The limbic system includes the: a. amygdala, hypothalamus, hippocampus b. hypothalamus, medulla, hippocampus c. hippocampus, pons, thalamus d. cerebellum, pons, hypothalamus
7. The ________ is to feeling fear as the ________ is to feeling pleasure. a. pons/medulla b. amygdala/hypothalamus c. thalamus/hypothalamus d. cerebellum/amygdala
8. The effect of neurotransmitters may be: a. chemical or electrical b. excitatory or inhibitory c. positive or negative d. active or passive
9. The terminal buttons of a neuron are located at the end of its: a. axon b. dendrite c. myelin sheath d. nodes of ranvier
10. Which lobe is most closely associated with visual processing? a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital
11. Communication within neurons is ______, communication between neurons is ________. a. excitatory, inhibitory b. inhibitory, excitatory c. chemical, electrical d. electrical, chemical
12. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the brain? a. frontal b. dorsal c. parietal d. temporal
13. A person who is drunk may have difficulty walking in a straight line because the alcohol has impacted their: a. thalamus b. reticular formation c. amygdala d. cerebellum
14. Neurotransmitters carry signals across the ________ ________. a. refractory gap b. axonal gap c. synaptic gap d. hippocampal gap
15. The poison curare is a(n) ________ for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. a. antagonist b. protagonist c. agonist d. cure
16. Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to impair: a. memory b. balance c. sleep d. breathing
17. Which part of the limbic system is involved in an animal’s feeling of hunger? a. thalamus b. pons c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus
18. The ________ ________ consists of glands that secrete hormones: a. nervous system b. immune system c. endocrine system d. cerebral cortex
19. Testosterone is to ________ as estrogen is to ________. a. thyroid, parathyroid b. testes, ovaries c. sympathetic, parasympathetic d. pancreas, pituitary
20. What do we call the layer of fatty tissue surrounding the axon of some neurons? a. cutaneous coating b. myelin sheath c. dendritic barrier d. synaptic sleeve
21. In the context of brain imaging, what does FMRI stand for? a. fast moving recovery imaging b. first moveable recording indicator c. flexible motion resistance indicator d. functional magnetic resonance imaging
22. Which lobe is primarily responsible for hearing and language? a. temporal b. parietal c. frontal d. occipital
23. After a car accident, Rhodri had a lot of difficulty planning his day. This is most likely the result of damage to which lobe? a. temporal b. parietal c. frontal d. occipital
24. Which area of the brain-stem controls heart rate and breathing? a. reticular formation b. medulla c. pons d. thalamus
25. Which structure allows communication between the hemispheres? a. reticular formation b. temporal lobe c. contralateral bridge d. corpus callosum
26. Which part of the endocrine system is sometimes called the “master gland”? a. adrenal gland b. pancreas c. pituitary gland d. pineal gland
27. Which of the following is NOT part of the endocrine system? a. pons b. pancreas c. parathyroid d. pineal gland
28. Where would you see the nodes of Ranvier? a. on an axon b. in the cell body c. on a dendrite d. a and c
29. The brain’s ability to change in response to experience or damage is called: a. lateralization b. lesioning c. neuroplasticity d. functionality
30. Which is the most common neurotransmitter in the brain? a. serotonin b. glutamate c. dopamine d. GABA

Answers

1. c
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. a
10. d
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. a
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. c
27. a
28. a
29. c
30. b

References

Britt, Michael. (2012). Quickly memorize the parts of the brain. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6xnMLr-sF7o&feature=youtu.be)

Chudler, Eric. (2018). Neuroscience for kids. Retrieved from http://faculty.washington.edu/chudler/neurok.html

Cold Spring Harbor Laborator. (n.d.). 3D Brain. [Computer App]. Retrived from https://itunes.apple.com/ca/app/3d-brain/id331399332?mt=8

CrashCourse. (2015). The Nervous System, Part 2 - Action! Potential: Crash Course A&P #9. [Video File]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OZG8M_ldA1M

CrashCourse. (2015). The Nervous System, Part 1: Crash Course A&P #8. [Video File]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/qPix_X-9t7E

Kucuk, Ugur Erdem. (2014) 2-minute neuroscience: The Neuron. [Video File]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/6qS83wD29PY

Leaner, Annenberg. (2017). The human brain. Retrieved from https://www.learner.org/series /discoveringpsychology/brain/brain_flash.html

Open Learn. Open Learning from the Free University. (2018). Starting with psychology: A brain of two halves. Retrieved from http://www.open.edu/openlearn/health-sports-psychology/psychology/starting-psychology/content-section-2.1

The Newton Channel. (2012). Dopamine: the two-faced molecule behind addiction and Parkinson’s disease. [Video File]. Retreived from http://www.theguardian.com/science/ video/2012/may/18/neuroscience-psychology

Vlogbrothers. (2010). Stabbed in the brain: Phineas Gage. [Video File]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/FrULrWRlGBA

Questions

1. Linear perspective refers to the fact that when one object overlaps another we perceive it as being closer to us.
2. People with blindsight are psychic.
3. Umami is a flavour found in MSG.
4. The vestibular system is important in enabling us to keep our balance.
5. The field of psychophysics was founded by Fechner.
6. The retina is a membrane in the upper nasal passage.
7. Rods specialize in detecting black, white and gray.
8. Sensory adaptation refers to diminished sensitivity after prolonged and constant exposure.
9. The moon appears larger when it is near the horizon than when it is seen overhead.
10. The middle ear contains six tiny bones.

Answers

1. false
2. false
3. true
4. true
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. true
10. false

If you are going to write more than a couple of paragraphs, think about the structure of your answer.

1. How do we see? Identify the key structures involved in visual processing and describe their role in vision.
2. Choose two gestalt principles and describe (with examples) how they contribute to our perception.
3. How have psychologists investigated absolute and difference thresholds?
4. How have psychologists demonstrated the role of expectations in perception?

1. Interposition, relative size and linear perspective are ________ depth cues.
2. ________ is defined as the organization and interpretation of sensations.
3. The ________ ________ is defined as the intensity of a stimulus that allows an organism to just barely detect it.
4. The visual cliff is used to assess ________ perception in infants.
5. The ________ ________ carries visual information from the eye to the thalamus.
6. The ________ theory of hearing argues that different areas of the cochlea respond to different frequencies.
7. The absolute threshold for human hearing is ________ decibels.
8. ________ ________ describes our ability to focus on some sensory inputs while tuning out others.
9. Our ________ ________ is a set of liquid-filled areas in the inner ear that monitors the head’s position and movement, maintaining the body’s balance.
10. The ________ ________ control theory of pain proposes that pain is determined by the operation of two types of nerve fibres in the spinal cord.

Answers

1. monocular
2. perception
3. absolute threshold
4. depth
5. optic nerve
6. place
7. zero
8. selective attention
9. vestibular system
10. gate control

1. Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________. a. vision, olfaction b. conscious, unconscious c. awareness, interpretation d. taste, vision
2. Visual accommodation involves a change in which structure? a. lens b. cornea c. retina d. fovea
3. If object A overlaps object B we perceive object A as being closer.  Which depth cue are we using? a. relative size b. linear perspective c. proximity d. interposition
4. ________ is the ability to sense the position and movement of our body parts. a. proprioaction b. proprioception c. proprioliction d. proprioprediction
5. A researcher interested in the relationship between physical stimuli and our psychological experience would be studying: a. extra sensory perception b. proprioception c. auditory realism d. psychophysics
6. When a person enters a dark room their pupils ________ to allow more light to enter their eyes. a. constrict b. curve c. dilate d. a or c
7. Wave ________ is to pitch as wave ________ is to loudness. a. length, frequency b. peak, trough c. pressure, distinctiveness d. frequency, amplitude
8. In depth perception, accommodation would be most useful for which activity? a. playing golf b. threading a needle c. driving a car d. flying a kite
9. What is the visible part of the ear called? a. pinna b. funnel c. tibia d. cochlea
10. The optic nerve carries information to: a. the retina then the cortex b. the retina then the thalamus c. the thalamus then the cortex d. the cornea then the retina
11. Where would you find tastebuds? a. on the tongue b. on the walls of the mouth c. at the back of the throat d. all of the above
12. Damage to the ________ may cause sensorineural hearing loss. a. eardrum b. pinna c. stapes d. cilia
13. Which are the 4 basic sensations our skin can detect? a. vibration, warmth, tingling, pain b. pain, friction, cold, warmth c. pain, pressure, hot, cold d. itching, tickling, friction, aching
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the six senses? a. proprioception b. transduction c. olfaction d. taste
15. Which of the following is a gestalt principle? a. intensity b. density c. proximity d. frequency
16. When detecting colour, hue depends on wave ________ while brightness dependson ________ a. height, length b. length, height c. intensity, consistency d. consistency, intensity
17. What is the stimulus for vision? a. electromagnetic energy b. electrovisual energy c. electrostatic energy d. electroconvulsive energy
18. People are more likely to notice a 50 cent increase in the price of a candy bar than they are to notice a 50 cent increase in the price of an iPad.  This illustrates: a. the absolute threshold b. Weber’s law c. signal detection d. opponent processes
19. What is another term for difference threshold? a. absolute threshold b. difference adaptation c. just noticeable difference d. sensory differentiation
20. According to the text, how many different taste sensations are there? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
21. Movement of hair cells in the ________ triggers nerve impulses which are sent to the brain. a. pinna b. cochlea c. malleus d. retina
22. Which of the following is NOT part of the vestibular system? a. horizontal canal b. anterior canal c. saccule d. invicticule
23. Damage to your olfactory membrane would most likely impair your ability to: a. see b. hear c. smell d. feel pain
24. Which of the following is NOT a set of opponent colours according to opponent process theory? a. red/blue b. red/green c. yellow/blue d. white/black
25. Your ability to focus on a TV show while ignoring the noise of your partner nagging about supper illustrates: a. synesthesia b. selective attention c. sensory attention d. sensory adaptation
26. The fact that you may notice a disgusting smell when you first walk into a room but stop noticing it if you stay in the room for a while illustrates: a. synesthesia b. selective attention c. sensory attention d. sensory adaptation
27. ________ ________ theory argues that pain is determined by the operation of two types of nerve fibres in the spinal cord. a. opponent process b. Young Helmholtz c. gate control d. neural location
28. The middle ear contains three little bones.  They are: a. pinna, cochlea, cilia b. incus, anvil, stapes c. hammer, anvil, stirrup d. tympani, ossicle, pinna
29. Signal detection analysis examines our ability to: a. tell the difference between blue and green b. detect signals of distress in a baby c. detect the latent meaning of a dream d. separate true signals from background noise
30. What do we call the field of psychology that focuses on improving the development of technology by using psychological knowledge? a. human factors b. signal detection c. humanistic psychology d. computer science

Answers

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. d
6. c
7. d
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. d
12. d
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. c
20. c
21. b
22. d
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. d
27. c
28. c
29. d
30. a

References

American Psychological Association. (2014, July 23). Strayer, Dr. David. Understanding driver distraction [Video File]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?time_continue=15&v=-k8p1yfg_r4

AsapSCIENCE. (2013, August 13). How old are your ears? [Video File]. Retrieved from http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VxcbppCX6Rk

Bite Sized Psych. (2016, February 14). 3 optical illusions that exploit your visual systems [Video File]. Retrieved from https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=QCLm1PvVTY8

CBC News. (2017). Hearing loss on the rise in young adults. Retrieved from http://www.cbc.ca/news/canada/edmonton/hearing-loss-on-rise-in-young-adults-1.4117268

CNN Style. (2017). 'Island of the Colorblind': Where the jungle is pink, the sea is gray and the light is far too bright. Retrieved from http://edition.cnn.com/2017/07/12/arts/sanne-de-wilde-island-of-the-colorblind/index.html

Fong, K., & Nahai, N. (Hosts) & Krysiak, E. & Sandersons, M. (Producers). (2016). Scents and sensibility: What's it like to live without smell [Audio podcast]. Retrieved from https://www.theguardian.com/lifeandstyle/audio/2016/sep/08/scents-and-sensibility-whats-it-like-to-live-without-smell-podcast

Med-El. (2012, November 13). Video about hearing and how it works [Video File]. Retrieved from http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=flIAxGsV1q0

New Scientist. (2009). Callaway, Ewen. The blind spot and the vanishing head illusion. Retrieved from https://www.newscientist.com/article/dn17511-the-blind-spot-and-the-vanishing-head-illusion/

Science Alert. (2015). Do women really tolerate pain better than men? Retrieved from https://www.sciencealert.com/do-women-tolerate-pain-better-than-men

Serendip Studio. Seeing more than your eye does. Retrieved from http://serendip.brynmawr.edu/bb/blindspot1.html

Test My Brain. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.testmybrain.org/

The Guardian. (2017). Not to be sniffed at: Human sense of smell rivals that of dogs, says study. Retrieved from https://www.theguardian.com/science/2017/may/11/not-to-be-sniffed-at-human-sense-of-smell-rivals-that-of-dogs-says-study

University of Virginia. (2013, April 22). Virginia Tech: The impact of color on consumer behavior [Video File]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nUxDqIeiXt0

Questions

1. Stimulants increase CNS activity?
2. Sleep spindles appear during REM sleep.
3. Freud believed that the primary function of dreams was wish fulfilment.
4. Nicotine is an opioid.
5. Sensory deprivation has been used as a form of torture.
6. Everyone is susceptible to hypnosis.
7. Mescaline and LSD have hallucinogenic effects.
8. Delta waves predominate during wakefulness.
9. Valium is a depressant.
10. People awakened during REM sleep are likely to report that they were dreaming.

Answers

1. true
2. false
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. true

1. Describe two ways in which people can alter consciousness without using drugs.
2. What impact do opioids have on human consciousness and behaviour?  Give examples to illustrate your answer.
3. Contrast Freud’s theory of dreaming with the activation-synthesis theory.
4. Describe the different phases of sleep.

1. Caffeine, nicotine and cocaine are all classed as ________.
2. The daily waking and sleeping cycle is an example of a ________ rhythm.
3. The pineal gland secretes the hormone ________ that facilitates the onset of sleep.
4. Freud argued that dreams have both ________ content and ________ content.
5. Alcohol is classed as a ________.
6. Stage N3 sleep is also known as ________ ________ sleep.
7. The idea that the mind and body are two separate entities is called ________.
8. In the context of sleep, REM stands for ________ ________ ________.
9. ________ ________ is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing that last at least ten seconds.
10. The four primary classes of psychoactive drugs are ________, ________, ________ and ________.

Answers

1. stimulants
2. circadian
3. melatonin
4. manifest, latent
5. depressant
6. slow wave
7. dualism
8. rapid eye movement
9. sleep apnea
10. stimulants, depressants, opioids, hallucinogens

1.  A dualist believes: a. people have two personalities b. life is better with a partner c. there are two explanations for every behaviour d. the mind is separate from the brain
2. Prolonged sleep deprivation can result in: a. impaired driving b. increased anxiety c. memory problems d. all of the above
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 primary classes of psychoactive drugs? a. stimulant b. barbiturate c. depressant d. hallucinogen
4. How long does a circadian rhythm last? a. about an hour b. about a day c. about a month d. about a year
5. Which of the following is a depressant? a. alcohol b. nicotine c. LSD d. caffeine
6. From birth to adulthood, the amount of sleep we need per night: a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. decreases then increases
7. ________ waves are to wakefulness as ________ waves are to deep sleep. a. alpha, beta b. beta, delta c. alpha, delta d. beta, theta
8. What is another name for N3 stage sleep? a. rapid eye movement sleep b. beta wave sleep c. dream sleep d. slow wave sleep
9. Caffeine is to ________ as alcohol is to ________. a. stimulant, depressant b. stimulant, hallucinogen c. stimulant, opioid d. barbiturate, stimulant
10. What did Freud regard as the primary function of dreams? a. enhanced cognition b. wish fulfilment c. memory suppression d. enhanced self-esteem
11. The body’s primary circadian pacemaker is the: a. pineal gland b. hippocampus c. suprachiasmatic nucleus d. amygdala
12. According to the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming, dreams are triggered by the random firing of neurons in the: a. right temporal lobe b. suprachiasmatic nucleus c. brain stem d. hypothalamus
13. What is another name for hallucinogens? a. poppies b. psychedelics c. epinephrine d. stimulants
14. The term “hypnosis” is based on the Greek word for: a. trance b. drug c. sleep d. dream
15. Which is the odd one out? a. opium b. halcion c. heroin d. morphine
16. What did Freud call the hidden psychological content of a dream? a. its manifest content b. its literal content c. its latent content d. its soporific content
17. Which hormone helps us fall asleep? a. nor-adrenalin b. estrogen c. oxytocin d. melatonin
18. Which is the odd one out? a. nicotine b. alcohol c. barbiturates d. benzodiazepines
19. The appearance of sleep spindles on a sleeper’s EEG recording would indicate they are in: a. REM sleep b. N1 stage sleep c. N2 stage sleep d. N3 stage sleep
20. Which of the following is NOT a sleep disorder? a. narcolepsy b. somnambulism c. sleep apnea d. epilepsy
21. Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep? a. decreased limbic system activity b. increased heart rate c. genital arousal d. dreaming
22. If you were looking at an EEG recording of a sleeping person and noticed theta waves, which stage of sleep would that indicate? a. REM b. N1 c. N2 d. N3
23. I am watching my friend sleep. If I want them to be able to tell me about their dreams I should wake them during: a. REM b. N1 c. N2 d. N3
24. ________ increase activity in the CNS while ________ reduce it. a. barbiturates, toxic inhalants b. barbiturates, stimulants c. stimulants, depressants d. depressants, stimulants
25. ________ behaviour is to unconscious as ________ behaviour is to conscious. a. normal, abnormal b. idiopathic, nomothetic c. automatic, controlled d. moral, immoral
26. When it comes to a drug’s “safety ratio” the bigger the ratio the, ________ drug. a. more dangerous b. less dangerous c. more expensive d. less expensive
27. Taking a stimulant will probably cause: a. an increase in blood sugar b. constricted pupils c. increased GABA production d. all of the above
28. Hallucinogens typically mimic which neurotransmitter? a. GABA and acetylcholine b. endorphins and dopamine c. serotonin and epinephrine d. dopamine and norepinephrine
29. ________ is defined as persistent difficulty falling or staying asleep. a. apnea b. narcolepsy c. bruxism d. insomnia
30. Which is the odd one out? a. heroin b. LSD c. PCP d. mescaline

Answers

1. d
2. d
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. d
9. a
10. b
11. c
12. c
13. b
14. c
15. b
16. c
17. d
18. a
19. c
20. d
21. a
22. b
23. a
24. c
25. c
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. d
30. a

References

Questions

1. Kohlberg argued that children at the preconventional stage of moral development focus on obtaining rewards and avoiding punishment.
2. Infants will show the Moro reflex in response to loud noise.
3. Ainsworth found that the majority of children have an ambivalent attachment.
4. Fluid intelligence typically increases as people get older.
5. According to Kubler-Ross there are five phases of grief.
6. Authoritative parents are high in demandingness and low in responsiveness.
7. According to Piaget, children are not born with an understanding of object permanence.
8. A longitudinal design uses the same participants multiple times over an extended period.
9. The timing of puberty is determined by the social clock.
10. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage starts at around age seven.

Answers

1. true
2. true
3. false
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false

1. What is the difference between longitudinal designs and cross-sectional designs? Describe some of the pros and cons of each approach.
2. Briefly describe Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development.
3. Describe the four parenting styles described in the text and illustrate each of them with an example.
4. What cognitive changes typically occur during late adulthood?

1. Kohlberg argued that people who are able to use abstract reasoning when thinking about moral behaviour have reached the stage of ________ morality.
2. ________ parents make few demands and give little punishment; they generally allow their children to make their own rules.
3. ________ adulthood is roughly defined as being between 45 and 65 years of age.
4. According to Kubler-Ross, the final phases of the grieving process are ________ and ________.
5. In Erikson’s model, the key challenge of young adulthood is ________ versus ________.
6. Beginning in the ninth week after conception, the embryo becomes a ________.
7. In Marcia’s stage model of identity development, ________ status describes a person who is exploring various choices but has not yet made a clear commitment to any of them.
8. According to Piaget, a key achievement of the sensorimotor stage is an understanding of object ________.
9. A child with ________ attachment has no consistent way of coping with the stress of a strange situation.
10. ________ sex characteristics distinguish the two sexes from each other but are not involved in reproduction.

Answers

1. postconventional
2. permissive
3. middle
4. depression, acceptance
5. intimacy, isolation
6. fetus
7. moratorium
8. permanence
9. disorganized
10. secondary

1. Another term for a fertilized ovum is: a. placenta b. sperm c. fallopian d. zygote
2. According to the text, middle adulthood lasts until approximately: a. age 35 b. age 45 c. age 55 d. age 65
3. ________ parenting combines high responsiveness with low demandingness. a. authoritative b. permissive c. rejecting-neglecting d. authoritarian
4. The trajectory of development beginning at conception is: a. zygote, fetus, embryo b. embryo, zygote, fetus c. zygote, embryo, fetus d. embryo, fetus, zygote
5. Which of the following is one of Marcia’s stages of identity development? a. foreclosure b. precipitant c. conventional d. operational
6. Which of the following has been put forward as a criticism of Piaget’s theory? a. he was not meticulous about his methods b. he did not pay enough attention to the social environment c. his findings apply to girls but not to boys d. his findings apply to boys but not to girls
7. Longitudinal research involves: a. testing different people of the same age b. testing different people at the same stage of development c. testing the same people at different ages d. a and b
8. According to research, which is the most common type of attachment? a. secure b. ambivalent c. avoidant d. disorganized
9. A baby is repeatedly shown a blue circle. Over time the baby shows less and less interest in the blue circle. This illustrates: a. sensory deprivation b. habituation c. dishabituation d. reflexive adjustment
10. Kohlberg proposed a stage theory of: a. cognitive development b. sexual development c. social development d. moral development
11. Cross-sectional studies are particularly vulnerable to: a. attrition b. lack of ongoing research funding c. cohort effects d. meta-critiques
12. Which brain area is responsible for reasoning and planning? a. brain-stem b. pre-frontal cortex c. temporal lobe d. parietal lobe
13. The “strange situation” is a test of: a. attachment b. accommodation c. assimilation d. arbitration
14. You are watching a newborn when it is startled by a loud noise. The baby extends its arms and legs, then quickly brings them in as if trying to grasp something. This illustrates the: a. grasp reflex b. tonic reflex c. moro reflex d. stepping reflex
15. Kubler-Ross claimed that there are 5 phases of grief. Which of the following was NOT one of the phases she identified? a. denial b. bargaining c. anger d. confusion
16. ________ ________ is the ability to think and acquire information quickly and abstractly. a. meta cognition b. fluid intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. speed reading
17. According to the text, early adulthood begins roughly between ages: a. 15 – 25 b. 20 – 30 c. 25 – 45 d. 30 – 50
18. Piaget believed that object permanence is typically attained during which stage? a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. pre-operational d. sensorimotor
19. You are stroking a baby’s cheek with your finger. The baby turns its head and tries to suck on your finger. The baby is exhibiting the ________ reflex. a. tonic neck b. withdrawal c. rooting d. grasp
20. ________ are substances that can harm the fetus. a. testosterones b. teratogens c. telomeres d. testifiers
21. Which of Marcia’s stages of identity development is characterised by the individual establishing an identity based on the choices or values of others? a. identity-diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. identity-achievement
22. Younger adults would typically outperform older adults on a test of: a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. wisdom d. vocabulary
23. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with a gradual loss of ________ producing neurons. a. dopamine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. GABA
24. Authoritarian parents are: a. demanding and responsive b. demanding but not responsive c. responsive but not demanding d. neither demanding nor responsive
25. Which of the following is part of the prenatal environment? a. placenta b. umbilical cord c. amniotic sac d. all of the above
26. Piaget argued that ________ and ________ go hand in hand during childhood. a. trust, mistrust b. intimacy, isolation c. accommodation, assimilation d. industry, inferiority
27. Which of the following is NOT a teratogen? a. nicotine b. testosterone c. radiation d. alcohol
28. Mary complains when her tall thin glass of juice is poured into a short but wider glass. She tells her father that she now has less juice. Mary has not yet grasped the principle of: a. assimilation b. integration c. attenuation d. conservation
29. When compared with someone in their 20s, a person in their 40s is likely to have: a. worse vision but better hearing b. worse hearing but better vision c. worse vision and worse hearing d. better vision and better hearing
30. At which stage of moral development did Kohlberg argue that people can make moral decisions that take account of principles such as justice and equality? a. post-conventional b. post-operational c. pre-conventional d. conventional

Answers

1. d
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. c
12. b
13. a
14. c
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. b
22. a
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. c
27. b
28. d
29. c
30. a

• Forget-me-nots in Purley: how the town became 'dementia friendly': a look at what town-planners can do to help residents with dementia  (https://www.theguardian.com/cities/2017/feb/02/purley-uk-latest-dementia-friendly-community)
• What is Canada's 'age of consent' and what are the Liberals changing? An article discussing plans to lower the age of consent in Canada.  (http://www.cbc.ca/news/politics/faq-age-of-consent-law-canada-1.3851507)
• Are Gender Toys Harming Childhood Development? An overview of some research looking at the impact of dividing toys based on gender. (http://www.theguardian.com/lifeandstyle/2016/may/28/toys-kids-girls-boys-childhood-development-gender-research)
• Wild Teenage Behaviour Linked to Rapid Cognitive Change in the Brain: A look at the impact of changes in the pre-frontal cortex during adolescence. (http://www.theguardian.com/science/2014/sep/05/teenage-brain-behaviour-prefrontal-cortex)
• Mind Changers: Mary Ainsworth: A discussion of Ainsworth’s work on parenting and attachment: (http://www.bbc.co.uk/programmes/p00f8n6q)
• Jean Piaget - the Three Mountains: A critical evaluation of Piaget’s work on cognitive development: (http://www.bbc.co.uk/programmes/p00f8n1g)
• The Heinz Dilema: Kohlberg’s theory of moral development put to the test in the 21st century: (http://www.bbc.co.uk/programmes/b008drfq)

References

Questions

1. In the prisoner’s dilemma game, one of the players takes the role of a prisoner while the other takes the role of a prison guard.
2. Being rewarded for doing something may actually reduce people’s liking for the activity.
3. In classical conditioning, acquisition precedes extinction.
4. In classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus becomes the unconditioned stimulus.
5. Negative reinforcement is the same thing as positive punishment.
6. Casino slot machines are programmed to pay out on a variable-ratio schedule.
7. Both primary and secondary reinforcers can be used to change behaviour via operant conditioning.
8. Observational learning is also called modelling.
9. Taking away a child’s iPad after they have misbehaved is an example of negative reinforcement.
10. In classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus triggers the conditioned response.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false

1. Describe how you would use operant conditioning principles to teach a dog a new trick.
2. What is the difference between generalization and discrimination in classical conditioning? Use examples to illustrate your answer.
3. How did Bandura study modelling?
4. Describe how classical conditioning principles can be used in advertising.

1. If we reinforce a desired response every time it occurs, we are using a ________ ________ schedule.
2. ________ punishment weakens a response by removing or reducing something pleasant after the response.
3. ________ studied observational learning of aggression by having children watch an adult interact aggressively with an inflatable doll.
4. Thorndike placed ________ inside a “puzzle box” to study learning.
5. A ________ is a strong and irrational fear of a specific situation, object or activity.
6. In classical conditioning, CR stands for ________ ________.
7. In order to extinguish a CR, we would have to present the ________ ________ repeatedly without the US.
8. Pavlov’s dogs were trained to salivate to the sound of a bell because the sound had been repeatedly associated with food.  In this example, food is the ________ ________.
9. ________ ________ strengthens a response by reducing or removing something unpleasant.
10. People who earn a monthly salary are being reinforced on a ________ ________ schedule.

Answers

1. continuous reinforcement
2. negative
3. Bandura
4. cats
5. phobia
6. conditioned response
7. conditioned stimulus
8. unconditioned stimulus
9. negative reinforcement
10. fixed-interval

1. Pavlov is famous for his work in: a. contingent conditioning b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. oppositional conditioning
2. The study of learning is most closely associated with which school of psychology? a. psychoanalytic b. humanist c. social d. behaviourist
3. If we reinforce the desired response every time it occurs we are using: a. continuous reinforcement b. incremental reinforcement c. intermittent reinforcement d. contingent reinforcement
4. Observational learning is also known as: a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. modelling d. manipulation
5. Taking away a child’s toys after she has hit her brother (to stop her hitting him again!) is an example of: a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. vindictive conditioning d. observational learning
6. According to the behaviourist school, ________ plays no role in learning. a. experience b. nurture c. nature d. punishment
7.  Thorndike developed the: a. law of effort b. law of energy c. law of effusion d. law of effect
8. Giving a student extra homework after they misbehave in class is an example of: a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement
9. ________ schedules of reinforcement are based on number of responses while ________ schedules of reinforcement are based on elapsed time. a. fixed, variable b. variable, fixed c. interval, ratio d. ratio, interval
10. To train her puppy to roll over, Kim began by rewarding it for simply lying down. Later, she only rewarded the puppy if it lay down AND turned to one side. Later still, the puppy only got a reward if it lay down, turned, then rolled over. Kim was using: a. classical conditioning b. modelling c. a fixed interval schedule d. shaping
11. In classical conditioning, US stands for: a. unintentional stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus c. unconnected stimulus d. none of the above
12. In classical conditioning, UR and CR are: a. opposite behaviours b. the same behaviour c. the result of extinction d. the same stimulus
13. Which of the following phrases best sums up the law of effect: a. think before you act b. if you can’t beat them, join them c. if it works, repeat it d. measure twice, cut once
14. Positive reinforcement ________ the likelihood of a behaviour, and negative reinforcement ________ the likelihood of a behaviour. a. increases, increases b. decreases, decreases c. increases, decreases d. decreases, increases
15. Gerhardt got sick after eating a peach. Now he feels sick when he looks at peaches, nectarines or plums. This illustrates: a. spontaneous recovery b. intermittent reinforcement c. modelling d. generalization
16. A bakery gives customers a free pastry after every 6 pastry purchases. This is an example of what kind of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio
17. A researcher trains a dog to salivate to the sound of a bell. Then he turns the lights on just before he sounds the bell. If he continues to do this until the dog starts to salivate as soon as the lights go on, he has demonstrated: a. latent learning b. insight c. second-order conditioning d. extinction
18. An intermittent schedule of reinforcement that reinforces behaviour after an average, but unpredictable, amount of time has passed is called a ________ ________ schedule. a. fixed ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. variable interval
19. Food is to ________ reinforcer as money is to ________ reinforcer. a. positive, negative b. negative, positive c. primary, secondary d. secondary, primary
20. Positive punishment ________ behaviour, and negative punishment ________ behaviour. a. strengthens, strengthens b. weakens, weakens c. strengthens, weakens d. weakens, strengthens
21. In the prisoner’s dilemma game: a. a positive outcome for one player does not necessarily mean a negative outcome for the other player b. a positive outcome for one player necessarily means a negative outcome for the other player c. the players can discuss their strategy with each other before making their choices d. each player has access to a lawyer
22. In the prisoner’s dilemma game, the cooperative decision is: a. confess b. don’t confess c. blame the other person d. none of the above
23. To encourage children to enjoy arithmetic, you should: a. punish them when they make a mistake b. reward them every time they get an answer right c. sometimes surprise them with a reward when they get an answer right d. ignore them
24. To be classed as a phobia, a fear must be both: a. rational and life-threatening b. unexplained and unconscious c. short-lived and dangerous d. strong and irrational
25. After being bitten by a big Alsatian dog, Hugo was scared of other big dogs but he was not scared of little dogs like Chihuahuas. This pattern demonstrates: a. shaping b. negative punishment c. discrimination d. latent learning
26. You are online one evening when an advert appears showing your favourite movie star wearing a new brand of sunglasses. The advertiser hopes that your positive feelings toward the movie star will make you want the sunglasses. In this situation, the sunglasses would be the: a. US b. UR c. CS d. CR
27. People who have a lot of dental problems often come to dislike even the smell of their dentist’s office. The smell represents a(n): a. US b. UR c. CS d. CR
28. Taking away a person’s car after they have been caught speeding would be an example of: a. positive punishment b. negative punishment c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement
29. Research indicates that exposure to violent TV/video games: a. has no impact of aggression b. increases aggression c. reduces aggression d. promotes random acts of kindness
30. Animals are most likely to learn associations that promote: a. survival b. happiness c. extinction d. discrimination

Answers

1.  c
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. d
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. c
14. a
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. c
20. b
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. d
25. c
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. b
30. a

References

Questions

1. The spacing effect refers to the fact that it is easier to learn different material in different locations.
2. Procedural memory is typically implicit.
3. Auditory sensory memory is called iconic memory.
4. Encoding is the process by which we put information into our memory.
5. Memory of our high school graduation would be a good example of semantic memory.
6. We tend to better remember items at the beginning and end of a list than those in the middle.
7. In general, people are too confident about their ability to accurately remember events.
8. In retroactive interference, newer information disrupts our ability to remember information that was learned earlier.
9. Being able to remember whether you heard something on the radio or read it in a book depends on a process called source monitoring.
10. A person with retrograde amnesia would be unable to form new long term memories.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. true
10. false

1. What is the availability heuristic?  How can it contribute to errors in judgment?
2. Describe the different types of implicit memory identified in the text.
3. How did Ebbinghaus contribute to our understanding of memory?
4. What is the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia?  Give an example of each.

1. The sense that we know the information we are trying to recall but can’t quite come up with it is known as the ________ ________.
2. The ________ effect refers to a tendency to better remember items presented at the beginning of a list.
3. ________ memory refers to knowledge or experiences that can be consciously remembered.
4. The strengthening of the synaptic connections between neurons as a result of frequent stimulation is called ______ ________.
5. The hippocampus is particularly important for explicit memories while the ________ is particularly important for implicit memories.
6. Visual sensory memory is more commonly referred to as ________ ________.
7. The central executive is the part of ________ ________ that directs attention and processing.
8. ________ fixedness occurs when people’s schemas prevent them from using an object in new and non-traditional ways.
9. The term ________ ________ is used to describe a vivid and emotional memory of an unusual event that people believe they remember very well.
10. Damage to the amygdala would most likely disrupt our ________ memories.

Answers

1. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
2. primacy
3. explicit
4. long-term potentiation
5. cerebellum
6. iconic memory
7. working memory
8. functional
9. flashbulb memory
10. emotional

1.  ________ memory is to hearing as ________ memory is to seeing. a. echoic, eidetic b. eidetic, echoic, c. working, short-term d. short-term, working
2. The cognitive school of psychology found it helpful to liken the brain to a(n): a. cash machine b. computer c. orchestra d. calculator
3. A person who has just eaten supper completes the word fragment _ o_k as fork (rather than as book or look etc). This is an example of: a. conditioning b. recognition c. priming d. relearning
4. Which of the following brain areas have been shown to be important for memory? a. cerebellum b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. all of the above
5. Puni isn’t sure whether she read something in a magazine or in her psychology text book. Puni has a problem with: a. media literacy b. the misinformation effect c. source monitoring d. salience
6. Anterograde amnesia is typically associated with damage to the: a. amygdala b. retina c. cerebellum d. hippocampus
7. Which part of working memory controls how attention is directed? a. the central executive b. the mother board c. the mnemonic processor d. the director
8.  ________ interference works backwards, and ________ interference works forwards. a. primary, recency b. recency, primacy c. proactive, retroactive d. retroactive, proactive
9. When asked to come up with the name of a bird, people are much more likely to say “robin” than they are to say “ostrich”. This is because: a. robin is a shorter word b. robin begins with the letter “r” c. robins are prototypical d. robins are smaller
10. The tendency to think about and experience events according to “what might have been” is known as: a. anterograde amnesia b. counterfactual thinking c. salience d. heuristic processing
11. Damage to the cerebellum is likely to interfere with: a. auditory processing b. explicit memory c. implicit memory d. emotional memories
12. Research has shown that there is _________________ between the accuracy of a person’s memory and their confidence in the accuracy of that memory. a. virtually no correlation b. a strong positive correlation c. a strong negative correlation d. a curvilinear relationship
13. The word fragment test is used to test a person’s ________ memory. a. extrinsic b. instrinsic c. explicit d. implicit
14. After reading an article about a case of cheating on campus, students are likely to over- estimate the incidence of cheating on campus. This is an example of: a. iconic memory salience b. the availability heuristic c. counterfactual thinking d. functional fixedness
15. In stage models of memory, information moves from: a. sensory to short-term to long-term memory b. sensory to long-term to working memory c. short-term to long-term to explicit memory d. sensory to eidetic to iconic memory
16. The spacing effect suggests that when you study for a test you should: a. wait until the last minute then find a quiet place to study b. learn different material in different places c. spread your study time over a number of sessions d. always study in a spacious area
17. Classical conditioning effects are an example of: a. eidetic memory b. primary memory c. retroactive interference d. implicit memory
18. Magnus was locked in a room. The only way to escape was to force open a window and climb out. Magnus remained locked in the room because he never thought to use his keys to force the window. Magnus’ problem was: a. amnesia b. functional fixedness c. interference d. misinformation
19. In the context of memory, LTP stands for: a. limited transfer potential b. lateral temporal parietal c. latent timing probability d. long term potentiation
20. After a stroke, 22-year-old Malik can no longer remember his childhood friends or the vacations he took with his family. Malik is suffering from: a. retrograde amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. functional fixedness d. dyslexia
21. Our tendency to focus on information that is consistent with our beliefs and to ignore contradictory information is called: a. contradiction avoidance b. confirmation bias c. counterfactual thinking d. functional fixedness
22. ________ information is lost from sensory memory, and ________ information is lost from short-term memory. a. unpleasant, pleasant b. pleasant, unpleasant c. unattended, unrehearsed d. unrehearsed, unattended
23. Recall involves ________ step(s), and recognition involves ________ step(s). a. one, one b. one, two c. two, two d. two, one
24. Working memory is best thought of as: a. an alternative to long term memory b. a set of memory procedures c. a type of procedural memory d. an adjunct to sensory memory
25. Shandra is convinced that her neighbour, Joe, is cruel to his dog. She notices every time Joe shouts at the dog or jerks its lead but she doesn’t seem to notice the times when Joe plays with the dog or gives it treats. This is an example of: a. misinformation b. anterograde amnesia c. proactive interference d. confirmation bias
26. Ivy remembers watching the solar eclipse in amazing detail. She is certain she can remember exactly what she was wearing, who she was with, what music was playing on a nearby radio and even the breed of dog which ran past her just before the eclipse. This is an example of a(n): a. flashbulb memory b. eidetic image c. procedural memory d. semantic memory
27. Research suggests that if you are sad when you study for a test you are likely to be better at remembering the material: a. when you are happy b. when you are drunk c. when you are sad d. when you are angry
28. ________ memory is to first-hand experience as ________ memory is to knowledge about the world. a. semantic, episodic b. episodic, semantic c. implicit, explicit d. explicit, implicit
29. Heuristics are: a. the same as mnemonics b. a type of hormone c. information processing strategies d. none of the above
30. When she studies for a Psych exam, Melodee always tries to think of ways in which the information she is trying to learn relates to her own life. She is hoping to benefit from: a. the self-reference effect b. the spacing effect c. overlearning d. enhanced interference

Answers

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. d
9. c
10. b
11. c
12. a
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. d
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. b
22. c
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. a

References

Questions

1. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder.
2. In a normal distribution, most scores are toward the low end.
3. If a new intelligence test turned out to measure patience rather than intelligence, it would have high construct validity.
4. Eugenicists believe that people with low intelligence should be deterred from having children.
5. A word is the smallest unit of sound that makes a meaningful difference in a language.
6. Babbling is the same as talking.
7. Convergent thinking seeks to find a single, correct answer.
8. Spearman believed that there were many specific intelligences but no general intelligence factor.
9. Wernicke’s area is responsible for language comprehension.
10. The concept of linguistic relativity refers to the fact that some languages are harder to learn than others.

Answers

1. true
2. false
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. false
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. false

Questions

1. What have psychologists discovered about sex differences in intelligence?
2. How would a psychologist try to establish the reliability and the validity of an intelligence test? *Note – you may have to go back to Chapter 3 to review these concepts.
3. What role do Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area play in language?
4. Can animals learn language?

1. Down syndrome is caused by a problem with the ________ chromosome.
2. The ________ ________ is shaped like a bell with most scores clustering around the middle.
3. IQ = ________ age divided by ________ age x 100.
4. An intelligence test will have ________ ________ if it actually measures intelligence rather than something else.
5. The set of rules of a language by which we construct sentences is call its ________.
6. ________ proposed that the human species could be improved if only people with “good” genes were allowed to reproduce.
7. ________ area is responsible for language production.
8. The knowledge we have accumulated throughout our lives is called _______ intelligence.
9. ________ intelligence is the ability to understand oneself, including one’s emotions.
10. ________ intelligence is the ability to understand other people, including their emotions and motivations.

Answers

1. 21st
2. normal distribution
3. mental, chronological
4. construct validity
5. syntax
6. eugenics
7. Broca’s
8. crystallized
9. intrapersonal
10. interpersonal

1.  ________ believed in a general intelligence factor. a. Sternberg b. Spearman c. Gardner d. Thurstone
2. In terms of intelligence: a. identical twins are more similar to one another than are fraternal twins b. fraternal twins are more similar to one another than are non-twin siblings c. adopted children are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents d. all of the above statements are true
3. Fluid intelligence tends to ________ with age while crystallized intelligence tends to ________ with age. a. increase, decrease b. increase, stay the same c. decrease, increase d. decrease, stay the same
4. According to the text, a typical university student has a vocabulary of: a. approximately 500 words b. approximately 5000 words c. approximately 50,000 words d. more than 100,000 words
5. Chomsky argued that: a. all languages share a fundamental universal grammar b. brains contain a language acquisition device c. children are born with a knowledge of general rules of syntax d. all of the above
6. Down syndrome is caused by: a. a brain injury during birth b. a chromosomal disorder c. poor education d. a viral infection during childhood
7. On average, women typically outperform men on tests of: a. spelling b. mental rotation c. both a and b d. neither a nor b
8. Which of the following is NOT one of Sternberg’s triarchic intelligences? a. creative intelligence b. practical intelligence c. fluid intelligence d. analytical intelligence
9. Research shows that people are more likely to be successful at learning a second language if: a. they start learning it as adults b. they start learning it as children c. they choose Vietnamese d. they stop using their first language completely
10.  ________ area is to language comprehension as ________ area is to language production. a. Wernicke’s, Broca’s b. Broca’s, Wernicke’s c. Chomsky’s, Skinner’s d. Skinner’s, Chomsky’s
11. Three-year old Bonita calls every dog she encounters Rover (the name of her family’s pet dog). This is an example of: a. over-emphasis b. overextension c. over-stimulation d. babbling
12. Sternberg’s practical intelligence is pretty much the same as: a. vocabulary b. memory c. mechanical ability d. common sense
13. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that: a. scores on intelligence tests have been increasing worldwide for decades b. identical twins are more similar intellectually than fraternal twins c. learning a second language seems to increase cognitive abilities d. language and its structures limit human thought
14. Eight-month old Juan lies in his cot and babbles. Which of the following is his most likely utterance? a. “mummy, mummy, mummy” b. “Juan wants bottle” c. “la la ba oo” d. “Mary had a little lamb”
15. A man may do poorly on a spelling test not because he lacks spelling ability but because he knows that men are not expected to do well on spelling tests. This is an example of: a. test bias b. gender neutrality c. stereotype threat d. the Flynn effect
16. Compared with monolinguals, people who are bilingual usually have: a. more cognitive flexibility b. superior cognitive functioning c. better analytical skills d. all of the above
17. If a proposed intelligence test turned out to really be a test of patience rather than intelligence, it would be criticized for having: a. low reliability b. low construct validity c. low consistency d. low consistent validity
18. The smallest unit of sound that makes a meaningful difference in language is called a: a. sound b. unit c. phoneme d. syntactic phrase
19. People who believe in eugenics would be most likely to support: a. programs that encourage university graduates to start a family b. free contraception for people with a degree c. free childcare for people who perform poorly on intelligence tests d. extended maternity leave for women who have been shown to have a low IQ
20. In the area of intelligence, WAIS stands for: a. Wernicke Aphasic Intelligence Scale b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale c. Wechsler Aptitude and Intelligence Scale d. Wernicke Approximate Intelligence Scale
21. Which of the following is NOT supported by research data? a. brain size is positively correlated with intelligence b. the number of neurons in a brain is positively correlated with intelligence c. thickness of the cortex is positively correlated with intelligence d. having a bigger brain makes people smarter
22. Interpersonal intelligence includes the ability to understand: a. one’s own emotions b. how context affects performance on vocabulary tests c. other people’s emotions d. the role of schooling in conversational ability
23. If an intelligence test is reliable, you would expect people to: a. be able to cheat on the test b. get a better score each time they write the test c. get a similar score each time they write the test d. take longer to write the test if they take it again
24. Divergent thinking is to ________ ________ as convergent thinking is to ________ ________. a. one solution, many solutions b. many solutions, one solution c. mathematical ability, verbal ability d. extrinsic motivation, intrinsic motivation
25. In order to direct other bees to the location of food sources, honey bees: a. hum b. buzz c. squirt honey d. dance
26. The term “linguistic relativity” refers to the idea that: a. some languages are better than others b. language influences how people think c. it is easier to talk to family members than friends d. there are different language families around the world
27. On average men do better than women on tests requiring: a. spatial ability b. spelling c. emotional intelligence d. pronouncing words
28. Intelligence is normally distributed in the population, this means that: a. most people have extremely low intelligence b. most people have extremely high intelligence c. most people are average in terms of intelligence d. everyone in the population has approximately the same level of intelligence
29. Which animals have been shown to use language in the same way as people? a. bonobos b. chimpanzees c. vervet monkeys d. none of the above
30. Misty Coleman is an outstanding ballerina. Which of Gardner’s multiple intelligences is she most clearly demonstrating when she dances? a. naturalistic b. linguistic c. logico-mathematic d. kinesthetic

Answers

1. b
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. b
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. c
16. d
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. c
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. b
27. a
28. c
29. d
30. d

References

Questions

1. In terms of our response to stress, the HPA axis refers to the hippocampus, the pituitary gland and the adrenal glands.
2. The term cognitive appraisal refers to our tendency to judge other people depending on their intelligence.
3. Social support can have both direct effects and appreciation effects.
4. The first stage of the sexual response cycle is orgasm.
5. The pancreas secretes insulin.
6. Stress is more likely to lead to the tend-and-befriend response in men than in women.
7. Proxemics are a form of nonverbal communication to do with personal space.
8. The James-Lange theory of emotion argues that arousal precedes our emotional experience.
9. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging.
10. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome referred to five distinct phases of physiological change that occur in response to long term stress.

Answers

1. false
2. false
3. true
4. false
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. true
10. false

1. What is the two-factor theory of emotion? Describe some of the research that has been put forward in support of it.
2. Identify three nonverbal cues and give an example of how each can be used to communicate emotion.
3. Describe the sexual response cycle.
4. How does the human body respond to stress?

1.  ________ is a general tendency to expect positive outcomes.
2. Glucose levels in the bloodstream are regulated by the hormone ________.
3. The sexual response cycle begins with ________ and ends with ________.
4. The HPA axis is comprised of the ________, the ________ ________and the ________ ________.
5. The ________-________ theory of emotion argues that our experience of emotion occurs alongside our experience of arousal.
6. A ________ is a driving force that initiates and directs behaviour.
7. Gestures, body position, facial expression and paralanguage are all kind of ________________.
8. The suggestion that movement of the muscles in our face may trigger corresponding emotions is referred to as the ________ ________ hypothesis.
9. ________ ________ is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging.
10. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, the experience of emotion is determined by both arousal and ________ ________.

Answers

1. optimism
2. insulin
3. excitement, resolution
4. hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal glands
5. Cannon-Bard
6. motivation
7. nonverbal communication
8. facial feedback
9. bulimia nervosa
10. cognitive appraisal

1. Which of the following is a response of the sympathetic nervous system? a. extra sugar is released into the bloodstream b. increased perspiration c. increased respiration d. all of the above
2. Primary emotions are to the ______ pathway as secondary emotions are to the ________ pathway. a. mild, intense b. hard, soft c. fast, slow d. pleasant, unpleasant
3. When faced with a stressful situation, men are likely to respond with the: a. fight or flight response b. hurt then help response c. fist and knees response d. tend and befriend response
4. The adrenal glands release: a. cortisol b. epinephrine c. a and b d. melatonin
5. The phenomenon of misattribution of arousal (e.g. thinking you are in love when really you are just scared) is best explained by which theory of emotion? a. the James-Lange theory b. the two-factor theory c. the Cannon-Bard theory d. the wishful thinking theory
6. Which of the following is NOT a kind of non-verbal communication? a. facial expression b. crying c. swearing d. tone of voice
7. Which of the following is classed as a basic emotion? a. guilt b. shame c. jealousy d. disgust
8. The facial feedback hypothesis refers to: a. the movements of our facial muscles can trigger emotions b. we can judge someone else’s mood by looking at their face c. once we know how we are feeling, we change our facial expression d. some people disguise their emotions if they look in a mirror
9. The ability to control one’s emotions is known as: a. facial feedback b. interpersonal intelligence c. emotional regulation d. emotional contingency
10. Which is the correct order for the stages of the sexual response cycle? a orgasm, excitement, plateau, resolution b excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution c plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution d plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
11.  ________ is the main sugar that the body uses for energy. a. insulin b. leptin c. fructose d. glucose
12. Which eating disorder is characterized by binge eating followed by purging? a. anorexia nervosa b. fasting c. bulimia nervosa d. 5:2 syndrome
13. When faced with a stressful situation women are likely to respond with the: a. fight or flight response b. hurt then help response c. fist and knees response d. tend and befriend response
14. Physical exercise can: a. lower blood pressure b. improve muscle strength c. slow age-related cognitive decline d. all of the above
15. Which of the following is a human sex hormone? a. ghrelin b. estrogen c. insulin d. adrenalin
16. The amount of energy we use while at rest is called our: a. basal metabolic rate b. resting heart rate c. relaxing glucose level d. normal insulin level
17. Social support can have both ________ and ________ effects on our happiness. a. minimal, continuous b. maximal, sporadic c. direct, appreciation d. indirect, cumulative
18. Before taking a test, Sunni says to his friend “I know I can do well on this test.” This best illustrates Sunni’s: a. over-confidence b. self-efficacy c. self-doubt d. peer review
19. People who are experiencing high levels of arousal from one event tend to experience unrelated emotions more strongly too. This is called: a. general adaptation syndrome b. spreading activation c. the Cannon-Bard hypothesis d. excitation transfer
20. Both the slow and fast emotional pathways are controlled by the: a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. frontal cortex d. amygdala
21. According to the text, what kind of role does material wealth play in determining happiness? a. huge b. significant c. small d. non-existent
22. The body mass index (BMI) is calculated using: a. calorie intake and calorie output b. activity level and carbohydrate consumption c. height and weight d. blood pressure and heart rate
23. According to Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, the third stage of our reaction to stress is: a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. mobilization
24. Which 3 structures make up the HPA axis? a. hypothalamus, pineal gland, anterior gyrus b. hippocampus, parietal lobe, affective cortex c. hippocampus, parasympathetic nervous system, adenoids d. hypothalamus, pituitary, adrenal glands
25. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion: a. emotional experience and physiological arousal occur at the same time b. emotional experience precedes physiological arousal c. physiological arousal precedes emotional experience d. we cannot experience different emotions
26. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion: a. emotional experience and physiological arousal occur at the same time b. emotional experience precedes physiological arousal c. physiological arousal precedes emotional experience d. we cannot experience different emotions
27. The most stressful life event included in the Holmes and Rahe Stress Scale is: a. being sent to jail b. getting divorced c. being fired from work d. death of a spouse
28. Which of the following does NOT influence our feelings of hunger? a. insulin b. ghrelin c. septin d. leptin
29. Anorexia nervosa is characterised by a(n) a. distorted body image b. extremely low body weight c. obsessive fear of gaining weight d. all of the above
30. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, emotion equals: a. arousal plus cognition b. arousal plus intelligence c. attribution plus explanation d. attribution plus cognition

Answers

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. c
10. b
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. d
15. b
16. a
17. c
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. c
22. c
23. b
24. d
25. a
26. c
27. d
28. c
29. d
30. a

1. a) The IV is whether the participants were given accurate information as to the effects of the drug (i.e. they were told they would experience arousal – this is the INFORMED condition) or whether they did not receive accurate information (i.e. they were not told the drug would cause arousal – this is the UNINFORMED condition) b) The DV in the first study was the participants’ rating of their emotional state. c) The DV in the second study is not clearly stated but appears to have been a measure of the participants’ behaviour. d) The results support the two-factor theory of emotion. How the participants felt was influenced by both their physiological state and their interpretation of that state.
2. Remember, construct validity is about whether the test measures what it claims to measure so you would probably want to see whether people’s performance on this test correlates with some other measure of their happiness (self-report, a behavioural measure (if you can think of one), a different “happiness” test, etc.)

References

Questions

1. The psychodynamic approach was founded by Skinner.
2. Conscientiousness is one of the dimensions included in the five-factor model of personality.
3. The Rorschach is a projective measure of personality.
4. The highest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs was love/belonging.
5. Carl Rogers was a well-known supporter of the psychodynamic approach.
6. Phrenologists believed that you could measure personality by feeling the bumps on a person’s skull.
7. Twin studies are helpful in understanding the contributions of nature and nurture to personality.
8. The genes of different members of the same species are almost identical.
9. According to Freud, from around 18 months to 3 years of age children experience sexual desire for the opposite-sex parent.
10. Traits are transient characteristics that influence our behaviour in specific situations.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. true
4. false
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. false

1. Describe Freud’s stages of psychosexual development.
2. Describe the five factors in the five-factor model of personality.
3. What is a projective measure of personality? Describe one such measure.
4. How can the study of twins shed light on the influence of nature and nurture on personality?

1. According to Freud, the ________ stage is when children experience sexual desire for the opposite-sex parent.
2. The idea that it is possible to assess personality from facial characteristics is known as ________.
3. Cattell used factor analysis to identify more important or ______ traits and less important or ________ traits.
4. ________ is a defence mechanism in which unacceptable sexual or aggressive desires are channeled into acceptable activities.
5. At the peak of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is the need for ________-________.
6. Chromosomes are made up of strands of ________.
7. Adler argued that children who are either overly nurtured or overly neglected by their parents may develop an ________ ________.
8. The big 5 are: openness to experience, neuroticism, extraversion ________ and ________.
9. The Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a ________ measure.
10. According to Freud the id is driven by the ________ principle.

Answers

1. phallic
2. physiognomy
3. source, surface
4. sublimation
5. self-actualization
6. DNA  …… deoxyribonucleic acid is obviously an acceptable answer as well!
7. inferiority complex
8. conscientiousness, agreeableness
9. projective
10. pleasure

1. Phrenologists tried to find out about personality by: a. reading a person’s horoscope b. feeling a person’s skull c. looking at a person’s hands d. asking people questions
2. A limitation of selective breeding studies is that they cannot: a. tell us anything about the role of genes b. be used to study human beings c. provide information relevant to the nature/nurture debate d. tell us anything about the role of the environment
3. Which neo-Freudian challenged his ideas about penis envy? a. Adler b. Fromm c. Jung d. Horney
4. Someone who feels as though they are not living up to expectations would be described by Adler as having: a. low self-realization b. an Adlerian complex c. an inferiority complex d. low actualization
5. According to Freud, the mind’s three components are: a. ego, id, superego b. unconscious, moral, immoral c. oral, anal, phallic d. primary, secondary, tertiary
6. The idea that you can assess someone’s personality by studying their face is called: a. phrenology b. physiology c. somatology d. physiognomy
7. The ________ complex is to girls as the ________ complex is to boys. a. Electra, Oedipus b. Oedipus, Electra c. oral, phallic d. phallic, oral
8. The discovery that the heritability of the Big Five personality traits is around 40% - 50% suggests that: a. the environment plays no role in personality b. genes play no role in personality c. the environment plays an important role in personality d. the Big Five traits account for about half of our personality
9. Humanistic psychologists embraced the idea of: a. repression b. free will c. unconscious drives d. the id
10. According to Eysenck, extraverts seek to ________ their arousal while introverts seek to ________ their arousal. a. decrease, increase b. hide, reveal c. increase, decrease d. reveal, hide
11. Allport believed that traits could be organized into three levels: a. primary, secondary, tertiary b. cognitive, emotional, physiological c. id, ego, superego d. cardinal, central, secondary
12. The MMPI is used to measure: a. unconscious drives b. the Big Five traits c. personality and psychological disorders d. leadership potential
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five traits? a. sense of humour b. openness to experience c. conscientiousness d. extraversion
14. Freud founded the ________ approach to understanding human behaviour. a. palliative b. psychodynamic c. patronymic d. psychedelic
15. The influence of parents on the personality of their children is: a. non-existent b. weakest in early childhood c. strongest in early childhood d. consistent across the lifespan
16. What is special about “knockout” mice? a. they are very attractive b. their DNA has been modified c. they are easy to knock out d. they are unusually aggressive
17. The aim of behavioural genetics is to learn about: a. the extent to which geneticists can modify people’s behaviour b. the possibility of eradicating behavioural problems in children c. the genetic and environmental influences on human behaviour d. the ability of animals to learn language
18. Monozygotic is to ________ twins as dizygotic is to ________ twins. a. male, female, b. female, male c. fraternal, identical d. identical, fraternal
19. Which of the following characteristics describe someone who, according to Maslow, is self-actualized? a. creativity b. confidence c. spontaneity d. all of the above
20. According to Freud, children pass through 4 stages of psychosexual development. Which of the following shows the stages in the correct developmental order? a. oral, anal, phallic, latency b. latency, oral, anal, phallic c. phallic, anal, oral, latency d. oral, phallic, latency, anal
21. Projective tests claim to reveal information about: a. career aptitude b. intellectual attainment c. unconscious processes d. parenting style
22. Traits are defined as: a. physical characteristics that distinguish us from other people b. relatively enduring characteristics that influence our behaviour across many situations c. unconscious tendencies to act in different ways according to the situation d. permanent personality tendencies that determine our behaviour in any situation
23. Sheldon’s theory that people with different body types have different personalities has been: a. supported by research b. discredited c. shown to be accurate for thin people but not overweight people d. shown to be accurate for women but not for men
24. Which of the following is not a defence mechanism? a. projection b. regression c. ingratiation d. sublimation
25. Rohan is self-disciplined, focused on achievement and keen to do his duty. He would be expected to score highly on: a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. conscientiousness
26. The Barnum effect helps to explain people’s belief in: a. fortune-telling b. astrology c. horoscopes d. all the above
27. ________ are the basic biological units that transmit characteristics from one generation to the next: a. genes b. neurons c. glia d. instincts
28. Which of the following would NOT be useful to a behavioural geneticist? a. family studies b. case studies c. adoption studies d. twin studies
29. According to Freud, the id is to the ________ principle as the ego is to the ________ principle. a. aggressive, sexual b. sexual, aggressive c. pleasure, reality d. reality, pleasure
30. Lana is friendly, always willing to help others and compassionate. We would expect Lana to score highly on: a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. openness to experience

Answers

1. b
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. a
6. d
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. c
11. d
12. c
13. a
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. d
20. a
21. c
22. b
23. b
24. c
25. d
26. d
27. a
28. b
29. c
30. b

References

Questions

1. Bipolar disorder is a type of mood disorder.
2. One common criticism of the DSM is that it leaves no room for subjectivity in diagnosis.
3. A behaviour can be classed as a psychological disorder simply on the basis that it is unusual.
4. ADHD is diagnosed much less often nowadays than in the past.
5. Asperger’s disorder is categorized as an autism spectrum disorder.
6. Schizophrenia is usually diagnosed between the ages of 16 and 30.
7. Hallucinations are classified as a positive symptom of schizophrenia.
8. Conversion disorder is a type of somatoform disorder.
9. Male erectile disorder is always the result of psychological factors.
10. Exhibitionism is a type of paraphilia.

Answers

1. true
2. false
3. false
4. false
5. true
6. true
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. true

1. What is the DSM and how is it used?
2. How have psychologists tried to explain anxiety and dissociation disorders?
3. Identify two sexual dysfunctions and describe how each of them can negatively impact a person’s enjoyment of sex.
4. What is borderline personality disorder and what is known about its causes?

1. The ________ ________ ________ Manual of Mental Disorders provides standard criteria for the classification of mental disorders.
2. Social withdrawal, poor hygiene, apathy and limited speech are all ________ symptoms of schizophrenia.
3. ________ disorder is a psychological disorder characterized by sudden attacks of anxiety and terror.
4. A person suffering from OCD will be bothered by repetitive ________ and repetitive ________.
5. ________ is a fear of germs or dirt.
6. ________ disorders involve the disruption or breakdown of memory, awareness and identity.
7. Conversion disorder is a type of ________ disorder.
8. Voyeurism is classified as a ________.
9. Bipolar disorder and dysthymia are both ________ disorders.
10. Multiple personality disorder is now called ________ ________ disorder.

Answers

1. Diagnostic and Statistical
2. negative
3. panic
4. thoughts, actions
5. mysophobia
6. dissociative
7. somatoform
8. paraphilia  ….. sexual disorder may be an acceptable answer depending on your prof.
9. mood
10. dissociative identity

1. Comorbidity occurs when: a. several members of a family have the same mental health issue b. an individual spends too much time thinking about death c. a person suffers from more than one disorder at the same time d. nothing can be done to prevent a disorder from occurring
2. In OCD, ________ are to thoughts as ________ are to actions. a. opinions, convictions b. obsessions, conditions c. obsessions, compulsion d. compulsions, obsessions
3. Schizophrenia is usually diagnosed in: a. infancy b. childhood c. early adulthood d. old age
4. Malingering and Munchausen syndrome are: a. somatoform disorders b. anxiety disorders c. sexual disorders d. factitious disorders
5. The prevalence rate of a disorder refers to: a. its frequency of occurrence in a population at a given time b. its severity within an individual c. how much coverage there is of the disorder in the media d. how long it typically takes an individual to recover from the disorder
6. Which of the following was NOT included in the Canadian Mental Health Survey: a. depression b. obesity c. drug abuse d. anxiety
7. DSM stands for: a. diagnostic and scientific manual of mental disorders b. diagnostic and statistical manual of major disorders c. diagnostic and scientific manual of major disorders d. diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders
8. Trepanation was used in olden times to help “cure” psychological disorders by: a. drilling holes in the skull b. using electric shock to “reset” the brain c. giving people more than one drug at the same time d explaining that it is normal to be scared
9. Dissociative identity disorder is sometimes called: a. schizophrenia b. dissociative fugue c. multiple personality disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder
10. Which of the following does the DSM NOT take into account when providing guidance re: a diagnosis? a. cultural factors b. medical conditions c. everyday functioning d. the DSM takes ALL of the above into account
11. GAD is more common in ______, while ADHD is more common in ________. a. educated people, uneducated people b. uneducated people, educated people c. females, males d. males, females
12. Until the 18th century the most common treatment for the mentally ill was to: a. lock people up in asylums b. give people experimental drugs c. give people psychoanalysis d. make people do community service
13. ADHD is usually first diagnosed in: a. infancy b. childhood c. adulthood d. old age
14. Frotteurism is: a. a type of schizophrenia b. an eating disorder c. a paraphilia d. a somatoform disorder
15. Gender identity disorder is a controversial diagnosis because: a. it seems to occur only in North America b. only people who have undergone psychoanalysis are ever diagnosed with it c. people who “suffer” from it do not regard their feelings or behaviours as a disorder d. it has a prevalence rate of zero
16. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of borderline personality disorder? a. mood swings b. hallucinations c. impulsivity d. identity problems
17. Which category/cluster of personality disorder does borderline personality disorder come under? a. dramatic/erratic b. odd/eccentric c. avoidant/dependant d. anxious/inhibited
18. A person suffering from hypoactive sexual desire disorder has: a. too little interest in sex b. too much interest in sex c. an obsessive need to expose their genitals in public d. a desire to witness suffering in other people
19. Acrophobia is to ________ as arachnophobia is to ________. a. open spaces, spiders b. spiders, open spaces c. heights, spiders d. spiders, heights
20. Which of the following has NOT been classified as a sexual disorder? a. dyspareunia b. vaginismus c. premature ejaculation d. creatinuria
21. A person who worries excessively about having a serious illness is most likely to be diagnosed as suffering from: a. borderline personality disorder b. conversion disorder c. hypochondria d. mitochondria
22. In the context of psychological disorders, APD stands for: a. anxious personality disorder b. arousal paraphilia disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. antagonistic performance disorder
23. BPD is more common in ________; APD is more common in ________. a. uneducated people, educated people b. children, adolescents c. extraverts, introverts d. women, men
24. Hallucinations are classed as a ________ symptom of schizophrenia. a. positive b. cognitive c. negative d. transitive
25. Dysthymia appears to be a milder form of: a. bipolar disorder b. clinical depression c. schizophrenia d. Munchausen syndrome
26. To understand anxiety disorders we need to take account of: a. only biological factors b. only environmental factors c. both biological and environmental factors d. neither biological nor environmental factors
27. APD is a type of________ disorder. a. internalizing b. mood c. somatoform d. externalizing
28. The difference between somatoform disorders and factitious disorders is that: a. somatoform disorders only happen to men, factitious disorders only happen to women b. somatoform disorders involve cognition, factitious disorders involve emotion c. in somatoform disorders the physical symptoms are real, in factitious disorders the physical symptoms are not real d. somatoform disorders are caused by environmental factors, factitious disorders are caused by genetic factors
29. Which of the following would be classified as a social-cultural influence in the bio-psycho-social model of illness? a. neurotransmitters b. homelessness c. patterns of negative thinking d. genetic makeup of the individual
30. A criticism of the DSM is that it: a. hasn’t changed since the 1950s b. is not actually used by therapists, insurers etc c. only includes a handful of disorders d. is primarily focused on Western illness

Answers

1. c
2. c
3. c
4. d
5. a
6. b
7. d
8. a
9. c
10. d
11. c
12. a
13. b
14. c
15. c
16. b
17. a
18. a
19. c
20. d
21. c
22. c
23. d
24. a
25. b
26. c
27. d
28. c
29. b
30. d

References

Questions

1. TMS and ECT are both biomedical therapies.
2. Psychoanalysis focuses on the patient’s unconscious.
3. The most commonly prescribed drugs for ADHD are depressants.
4. Antipsychotic drugs are also called neuroleptics.
5. CBT stands for Compassion Based Therapy.
6. Carl Rogers developed person-centred therapy.
7. When administering ECT, physicians deliberately trigger a brief seizure.
8. Antianxiety medications typically target the neurotransmitter serotonin.
9. Flooding involves forcing a patient to confront their fear head on/all at once.
10. In a primary prevention community mental health service, all members of the community receive the treatment.

Answers

1. true
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. false
6. true
7. true
8. false
9. true
10. true

1. Describe two direct brain intervention therapies.
2. What is CBT and how is it used to treat psychological problems?
3. How do researchers evaluate the effectiveness of different therapies?
4. How do SSRIs work and what are some of their side effects?

1. SSRIs are drugs that block the reuptake of ________.
2. ________ ________ studies assess the effectiveness of treatments.
3. A _______ - ________ is a statistical technique that integrates data from existing studies.
4. Psychoanalysis is also known as ________ ________.
5. CBT makes use of both ________ and ________ techniques.
6. Person-centred therapy was developed by Carl ________.
7. In ________ therapy the therapist uses a number of different types of therapy rather than sticking with only one approach.
8. ECT involves passing ________ ________ through a patient’s brain.
9. ________ therapy involves the use of positive punishment to reduce the frequency of an undesirable behaviour.
10. Thorazine, Haldol and Risperdal are different ________ drugs.

Answers

1. serotonin
2. outcome research
3. meta-analysis
4. psychodynamic therapy
5. cognitive, behavioural
6. Rogers
7. eclectic
8. electric currents  ….. electricity is also an acceptable answer.
9. aversion
10. antipsychotic  …… neuroleptic is also an acceptable answer.

1. Women are ________ likely than men to visit a doctor because they are anxious. a. more b. less c. no more or less likely d. there is no data on this issue
2. Stimulants are most likely to be prescribed to a person suffering from: a. ADHD b. anxiety disorders c. bipolar discorders d. Munchausen syndrome
3. Natural improvement is a threat to the ________ of outcome research. a. reliability b. validity c. stability d. ingenuity
4. Exposure therapy makes use of which conditioning principle? a. negative reinforcement b. negative punishment c. both a and b d. extinction
5. In the context of psychological treatment, what does CBT stand for? a. client based therapy b. complex brain therapy c. cognitive behavioural therapy d. compassion based therapy
6. Psychiatric service dogs have been trained to help people suffering from: a. bipolar disorder b. panic attacks c. anxiety disorder d. all of the above
7. Giving alcoholics “Antabuse” to make them feel nauseous if they drink alcohol is an example of: a. aversion therapy b. exposure therapy c. ECT d. AAT
8. In the context of treatment for psychological disorders, TMS is a type of: a. hormone b. neurotransmitter c. brain stimulation d. antipsychotic medication
9. Concern about nonspecific treatment effects in evaluation research reflects the possibility that: a. patients will improve in a way that cannot be measured b. some patients will improve while others will not c. no treatment will work d. receiving any kind of treatment will be beneficial
10. Primary prevention strategies target ________ while secondary prevention strategies target ________. a. children, adults b. seriously disturbed people, mildly disturbed people c. everyone, selected individuals d. adults, children
11. Risk factors for psychological disorders may be: a. social b. economic c. environmental d. all of the above
12. The biomedical approach to treating psychological disorders emphasizes: a. family and cognitive therapy b. medication and brain intervention c. psychoanalytic intervention d. CBT and projective testing
13. The main aim of psychodynamic therapy is to explore the patient’s: a. friendships b. unconscious c. work relationships d. neuronal health
14. One of the founders of humanistic therapy was: a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud c. Karl Lashley d. Edward Thorndike
15. Both flooding and systematic desensitization are types of: a. systemic therapy b. psychodynamic therapy c. behavioural therapy d. biomedical therapy
16. MAO inhibitors, tricyclics and SSRIs are all used to treat: a. ADHD b. psychosis c. bipolar disorder d. depression
17. Eclectic therapy may include: a. medication b. CBT c. psychotherapy d. all of the above
18. An anti-psychotic drug would be most likely to be prescribed for a person suffering from: a. anxiety b. schizophrenia c. ADHD d. all of the above
19. Improvement that occurs simply because a patient expects to feel better rather than because of the actual treatment is called: a. a treatment effect b. a placebo effect c. an illusory correlation d. a Barnum effect
20. A fetus is most vulnerable to damage from drugs used to treat the mother’s mental illness during: a. the first trimester b. the second trimester c. the final trimester d. there is no risk to the fetus from these drugs
21. Meta-analysis involves: a. using descriptive rather than inferential statistics b. using results from the study with the largest number of participants c. combining results from different studies d. replicating a study until you achieve the same results
22. Antipsychotic medications appear to influence both ________ and ________. a. estrogen, testosterone b. dopamine, serotonin c. serotonin, GABA d. adrenalin, GABA
23. Ativan, Valium and Xanax are types of ________ medication. a. anti-psychotic b. anti-convulsive c. anti-anxiety d. anti-depressant
24. You are most likely to encounter the principles of operant conditioning in: a. CBT b. humanistic therapy c. psychodynamic therapy d. dream analysis
25. Drug therapies are based on the assumption that psychological disorders are associated with: a. brain injury b. disordered thinking c. chemical imbalance d. unconscious conflicts
26. SSRIs work by blocking the reuptake of: a. imipramine b. glucose c. reactine d. serotonin
27. A criticism of drug therapies is that: a. they provide no relief for the majority of people b. they have been shown to be helpful for people suffering from ADHD, but there is no evidence they help people suffering from depression c. they provide temporary relief, but do not treat the underlying cause of the disorder d. they take much longer to help people than psychodynamic therapy
28. The difference between group therapy and a self-help group is: a. group therapy involves a therapist, but a self-help group does not b. group therapy is for more than one person, but a self-help group is just for an individual c. group therapy is a short-term fix, while a self-help group provides long term benefits d. group therapy is usually online, while a self-help group is never online
29. ECT is most commonly used to treat: a. anxiety b. depression c. addiction d. schizophrenia
30. Prefrontal lobotomy and cingulotomy are types of: a. drug intervention b. psychotherapy c. psychosurgery d. community intervention

Answers

1. a
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. c
9. d
10. c
11. d
12. b
13. b
14. a
15. c
16. d
17. d
18. b
19. b
20. a
21. c
22. b
23. c
24. a
25. c
26. d
27. c
28. a
29. b
30. c

References

Questions

1. Milgram’s (in)famous studies explored under what circumstances people were prepared to reward others.
2. An intimate relationship is characterized by caring, warmth, social support and acceptance.
3. Groupthink involves making better decisions than the members of the group would make on their own.
4. People tend to perform better when they have an audience provided they are good at the task to start with.
5. People are described as being interdependent if they rely on each other to meet their goals.
6. The fundamental attribution error describes our tendency to assume that other people are more religious than we are.
7. Prejudice refers to actions, while discrimination refers to beliefs.
8. People are more likely to be altruistic if they are experiencing guilty feelings.
9. People are more likely to be altruistic if they are in a good mood.
10. Latané and Darley argued that the social situation is largely irrelevant in influencing whether someone will help another person.

Answers

1. false
2. true
3. false
4. true
5. true
6. false
7. false
8. true
9. true
10. false

1. Explain what is meant by a self-fulfilling prophecy and describe how it might influence our social relationships.
2. Describe Latane and Darley’s model of helping and explain how it was influence by the Kitty Genovese incident.
3. Describe four variables known to increase helping.
4. Discuss how social loafing and groupthink may contribute to a group process loss.

1. The social norm that condones and even encourages responding to insults with aggression is known as the ________ ________ ________.
2. We may conform because we want to be liked by others, this is known as ________ conformity.
3. ________ involves attributing personality characteristics to people on the basis of their physical appearance or membership of a social group.
4. The implicit association test aims to measure ________ stereotyping.
5. Our tendency to underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate the role of personal factors when we try to explain other people’s behaviour is known as the ________________ ________.
6. ________ ________ is the tendency to perform tasks more poorly when other people are present.
7. Milgram’s (in)famous studies focused on ________.
8. The study of ________ ________ investigates what makes people like, and even love, each other.
9. On average, viewing violent media ________ aggression.
10. ________ ________ refers to the discomfort we experience when we choose to behave in ways that conflict with our beliefs or attitudes.

Answers

1. culture of honour
2. normative
3. stereotyping
4. unconscious
5. fundamental attribution error  …… correspondence bias is also an acceptable answer.
6. social inhibition
7. obedience
8. interpersonal attraction
9. increases
10. cognitive dissonance

1. Physically attractive people are usually perceived as: a. more intelligent than unattractive people b. more dominant than unattractive people c. more socially skilled than unattractive people d. all of the above
2. Research has shown a positive correlation between aggression and the level of: a. acetylcholine b. testosterone c. estrogen d. GABA
3. In Milgram’s original study on obedience, what percentage of participants were willing to administer the maximum level of shock: a. 5% b. 30% c. 65% d. 95%
4. People are more likely to help others if: a. they are in a bad mood b. they feel guilty about something c. someone else is already helping d. they are in a hurry
5. Punching a wall or kicking a chair when you are angry at a co-worker are examples of: a. displaced aggression b. inanimate hostility c. repression d. avoidant attachment
6. An advertiser who seeks to associate their product with something people already like (for example, a celebrity or a popular song) is making use of: a. classical conditioning principles b. pseudoscience c. operant conditioning principles d. sublimation
7. According to Moreland and Beach, the more frequently we see a person the: a. less likely we are to recognize them b. less likely we are to trust them c. more likely we are to dislike them d. more likely we are to like them
8. Having an audience typically ________ us if we are doing an easy task and ________ us if we are doing a difficult task. a. hinders, hinders b. helps, helps c. helps, hinders d. hinders, helps
9. Groupthink is most likely when: a. there is time pressure b. group members feel no sense of group identity c. there is a weak leader d. group members are in frequent contact with people outside the group
10. Stimulation of the amygdala is most likely to increase feelings of: a. happiness b. guilt c. shyness d. aggression
11. Evolutionary theory predicts that we will be most likely to help: a. old people b. family members c. poor people d. strangers
12. Research has shown that people are LESS willing to administer severe shocks in the Milgram paradigm if: a. they choose the level of shock themselves b. the person telling them to administer the shock is in another room c. they knew that other people had refused to administer severe shocks d. all of the above
13. In terms of interpersonal attraction, research suggests that: a. opposites attract b. similarity breeds contempt c. birds of a feather flock together d. a stitch in time saves nine
14. We tend to stereotype people on the basis of their: a. physical appearance b. age c. race d. all of the above
15. People who are high in self-monitoring are ______ likely to act in ways consistent with their attitudes than people who are low in self-monitoring. a. more b. less c. neither more nor less d. more if they are angry, less if they are sad
16. To be classed as “intimate”, a relationship must be based on: a. passion b. acceptance c. social support d. all of the above
17. Prejudice is to ________ as discrimination is to ________. a. thought, action b. race, age c. stereotype, categorization d. negative, positive
18. The tendency to underestimate the role of situational factors when deciding why a stranger behaved in a particular way is known as the: a. self-serving bias b. fundamental attribution error c. situational exploitation bias d. causal explanation error
19. If you want someone to be attracted to you, research suggests that you should: a. ask them about themselves b. argue with them c. talk only about yourself d. all of the above
20. The fact that as group size increases, group productivity tends to decrease is most likely explained by: a. groupthink b. stereotyping c. social loafing d. social facilitation
21. According to the “foot in the door” technique, you are more likely to be able to change someone’s attitude if you: a. visit them in their home b. start by complimenting them on their choice of footwear c. tell them how many celebrities hold the attitude you want them to adopt d. get them to make a small change in attitude to start with
22. Jill and John have been married for many years and rely on each other to meet important goals. This reliance reveals that they are: a. passionate b. interdependent c. self-serving d. all of the above
23. Groups that set ________ and ________ goals are more likely to be effective than groups that don’t set these kind of goals. a. easy, vague b. vague, unreachable c. specific, attainable d. difficult, unattainable
24. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of minority influence? a. a union is successful in negotiating an improved benefits package for its members b. three teenagers manage to persuade their school to adopt a new anti-litter policy c. Shari is able to persuade her friend Ivy to give up smoking d. the government passes a law requiring cyclists to wear helmets
25. According to cognitive dissonance theory, we may be motivated to change our attitudes to: a. reduce negative feelings b. conform to the attitudes of high-status individuals c. force others to do the same d. increase our level of anxiety
26. Another term for the fundamental attribution error is: a. commitment b. correspondence bias c. cognitive dissonance d. stereotype threat
27. We are likely to make a ________ attribution to explain our success, and a ________ attribution to explain our failure. a. causal, correlational b. correlational, causal c. person, situation d. situation, person
28. Benjamin thinks that if he kicks his car and swears at his computer he will release his anger and be less aggressive with his co-workers. Benjamin believes in: a. the fundamental attribution error b. social loafing c. social facilitation d. catharsis
29. One likely explanation for why so many people ignored Kitty Genovese’s situation is: a. social facilitation b. the social responsibility norm c. diffusion of responsibility d. groupthink
30. The Implicit Association Test is designed to measure: a. verbal ability b. unconscious stereotyping c. hidden mathematical ability d. dream content

Answers

1. d
2. b
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. a
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. d
11. b
12. d
13. c
14. d
15. b
16. d
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. c
21. d
22. b
23. c
24. b
25. a
26. b
27. c
28. d
29. c
30. b

• The Bystander Effect is about More than the Diffusion of Responsibility shows research following-up the Kitty Genovese story.  (https://digest.bps.org.uk/2016/06/29/the-bystander-effect-is-about-more-than-the-diffusion-of-responsibility/)
• New Milgram Replication in Poland shows shocking new replication on Milgram’s study: (https://digest.bps.org.uk/2017/05/05/new-milgram-replication-finds-90-per-cent-of-polish-participants-willing-to-deliver-highest-shock/)
• Why the Sound of Ed Sheeran Helps Sell Fries reflects some creative work on the use of music in advertising/consumer behaviour.  (https://www.theguardian.com/business/shortcuts/2017/apr/02/why-the-sound-of-ed-sheeran-helps-sell-fries)
• A Harvard Psychologist Says People Judge you Based on 2 Criteria When they First Meet You is an article looking at how we judge others.  (http://www.independent.co.uk/life-style/a-harvard-psychologist-says-people-judge-you-based-on-2-criteria-when-they-first-meet-you-a6819501.html)

References

Questions

1. Stress in the workplace has physical, psychological and social costs.
2. People who believe that their success is a matter of luck have an internal locus of control.
3. Cortisol and adrenaline are neurotransmitters.
4. Deep breathing and yoga are examples of physical stress management techniques.
5. The inverted U hypothesis describes the impact of increasing arousal on performance.
6. Selye proposed the concept of eustress to describe how stress impacts males and females differently.
7. People suffering from presenteeism may continue working even when they are injured.
8. Employees who survive in high-demand environments are described as “resilient”
9. During our primary appraisal of a stressor, we evaluate our coping strategies.
10. A person who believes that their success is the result of their own effort would be described as having an internal locus of control.

Answers

1. true
2. false
3. false
4. true
5. true
6. false
7. true
8. true
9. false
10. true

1. Describe the ways in which stress can have a negative impact on health. 
2. What are the elements of hardiness and how can they help a person cope with stress?
3. Describe Lazarus’ transactional theory of stress and coping.
4. Describe three cognitive action strategies that can be used to deal with stress in the workplace.

1. Stress can be viewed as a response, a stimulus or a ________.
2. A coping strategy called ________ involves working while ill or injured or putting in longer hours.
3. In response to stress, the adrenal glands release adrenalin and ________.
4. Stress is experienced both ________ and psychologically.
5. Hardiness includes elements of commitment, challenge and ________.
6. The idea that stress can sometimes have a positive effect is captured by Selye’s concept of ________.
7. The three phases of the general adaptation syndrome are ________, resistance and ________.
8. Secondary appraisal involves an individual’s evaluation of their  ________ resources and/or coping strategies.
9. Reading, meditation and time management are all types of _________ stress management techniques.
10. The ________ ________ hypothesis argues that too much or too little stress can result in poor performance, while moderate amounts of stress produce optimal performance.

Answers

1. transaction
2. presenteeism
3. cortisol
4. physiologically
5. control
6. eustress
7. alarm, exhaustion
8. secondary
9. cognitive
10. inverted u

1. According to the Canadian government, stress has ________ costs. a. social b. economic c. personal d. all of the above
2. Commitment, control and challenge are all elements of: a. tardiness b. stress c. hardiness d. depression
3. One response to stress in the workplace is “presenteeism”. This may include: a. working longer hours b. working while ill c. not taking holidays d. all of the above
4. According to the inverted U hypothesis, optimal performance occurs when: a. there are high levels of stress b. there is no stress c. there is a moderate level of stress d. the inverted U hypothesis does not address this issue
5. The fight or flight response is instigated by the: a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. cerebellum d. pons
6. In the context of stress research, GAS stands for: a. generalized anxiety symptoms b. general adaptation syndrome c. gustatory alimentary system d. generic adrenal sensitivity
7. A person with an internal locus of control generally feels that: a. location matters most when it comes to understanding behaviour b. internal feelings are more important than outward appearance c. they are responsible for their own achievements d. emotional control is the best way of coping with stress
8. In response to stress, levels of adrenaline ________ and levels of cortisol ________. a. rise, rise b. fall, fall c. rise, fall d. fall, rise
9. Selye used the term ________ to refer to the fact that stress can sometimes be beneficial. a. pro-stress b. eustress c. buzz d. compensation
10. A person who believes that his/her achievements are determined by fate would be described as having an ________ locus of control. a. interrupted b. internal c. exacting d. external
11. Which stress hormone increases sugars in the bloodstream and enhances the brain’s use of glucose? a. adrenalin b. testosterone c. cortisol d. all of the above
12. Which of the following would be classed as a cognitive action strategy for dealing with stress? a. goal setting b. asking questions c. analyzing the problem d. all of the above
13. Self-confidence is a ________ measure; self-efficacy is a ________ measure. a. state, trait b. trait, state c. useful, useless d. useless, useful
14. Deep breathing, yoga and exercise would all be ________ stress management techniques. a. religious b. cognitive c. physical d. social
15. According to the transactional theory of stress and coping, our response to stress follows which path? a. primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, stressor, coping response b. stressor, emotional appraisal, cognitive appraisal, coping response c. stressor, primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, coping response d. emotional appraisal, cognitive appraisal, stressor, coping response
16. Another term for hardiness is: a. resilience b. control c. eustress d. aerobic fitness
17. According to Selye’s GAS model, we respond to stress with alarm, then with resistance and, finally, with ________. a.. adjustment b. eustress c. commitment d. exhaustion
18. Which stress hormone increases heart rate and elevates blood pressure? a. cortisol b. progesterone c. adrenaline d. dopamine
19. Which of the following is NOT associated with workplace stress? a. work overload b. job insecurity c. supervisory support d. conflict with co-workers
20. The adrenal glands are located: a. at the top of the kidneys b. in the brain c. in the stomach d. to the left of the heart

Answers

1. d
2. c
3. d
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. c
15. c
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. c
20. a

References

After Class

Studying for Exams

Remember to ask your Prof. about the exam.  What type of questions will be included (essay, multiple choice etc)?  Are you expected to know names and dates?

Finally, when it comes to the exam – try to relax!  Think of this as an opportunity to show off what you know.

Resources

Psychology Specific Resources

References

Ariely, D. (2018). Tag: Arming the Donkeys.  Retrieved from http://danariely.com/tag/arming-the-donkeys/

Australian Broadcasting Corporation, Radio National. (2018).  All in the Mind – Podcasts. [Audio podcast]. Retrieved from http://www.abc.net.au/radionational/programs/allinthemind/

Canadian Psychological Association. (2018).  Retrieved from http://www.cpa.ca/

Crash Course. (February 3, 2014). Introduction to Psychology: Crash Course Psychology #1. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/vo4pMVb0R6M

Harris, S. (2018). Waking Up - Podcast. [Video podcast]. Retrieved from https://www.samharris.org/podcast

Indiana University Bloomington, Student Academic Center. (September 13, 2013). Taking Notes in Class. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Yc5qyMTjO3k

Indiana University Bloomington, Student Academic Center. (September 11, 2013). Time Management. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/9Q1KELLwaSk

National Public Radio. (2018). Hidden Brain. [Audio podcast]. Retrieved from http://www.npr.org/podcasts/510308/hidden-brain

Ottawa University, Student Academic Success Service. (August 28, 2014). Study Skills: Preparing for Exams. [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtube.com/khhjXkzXaZA